I won't debate on the wavefunction collapse

  • #51
meopemuk said:
This example makes clear that one needs to carefully draw the line between what is considered observable effects and what is "stuff" of theory. You vividly demonstrated that drawing this line inside our brain leads to solipsism. But it would be just as silly to draw this line in such a way that all theoretical stuff gets promoted to the rank of observable effects. Shall we say that forces are real? what about electromagnetic fields? wave functions? Hilbert spaces? quantum fields? curved space-time..?
It is because of this arbitrariness that I think all this talk of "existing" and "reality" is usually just an expression of cognative bias.

Mentz114 said:
This is what I understand by Solopsism and I admit I only vaguely see what is meant, while finding it offensively ilogical. I don't want to get into metaphysics, not my bag.
If you don't want to get into metaphysics, then you shouldn't jump into a discussion about what is "real" and what isn't. :smile: It is physics to postulate entities that explain experiment, but it is metaphysics to postulate about the "reality" of those entities.

It's amazing how much QM inspires people to turn into metaphysicists. I suppose SR did the same thing, though.
 
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  • #52
Another thing worth mentioning about the original topic 'wave function collapse' is that it is possible to start with the SE and correctly predict the dynamics of quantum particles without mentioning probablity amplitudes, Hilbert space or wave function collapse. So these things do not have the special position they seem to have assumed.

Thought experiment: A classical computer simulates an observer measuring the z-component of the spin of an electron in state \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\left |\uparrow\right\rangle+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3}}\left |\downarrow\right\rangle

The computer numerically computes the time evolution of the many particle wave function of the observer as it interacts with the electron. Assuming functional artificial intelligence (the idea that an exact simulation of an observer generates a real conscious observer), what is the probability that the spin is found in the state \left |\uparrow\right\rangle ?
 
  • #53
Mentz114 said:
Another thing worth mentioning about the original topic 'wave function collapse' is that it is possible to start with the SE and correctly predict the dynamics of quantum particles without mentioning probablity amplitudes, Hilbert space or wave function collapse. So these things do not have the special position they seem to have assumed.

I disagree completely. Schroedinger equation allows you to calculate the wave function. However, the wave function does not "correctly predict the dynamics of quantum particles". It tells us only probabilities of this or that outcome. However, in real measurement only one outcome gets realized out of the whole range of possibilities. Nobody can tell (SE certainly doesn't tell that) which outcome will be realized. This choice is completely random and unpredictable. So, you cannot avoid talking about probability amplitudes and wave function collapse in quantum mechanics.

Eugene.
 
  • #54
meopemuk said:
I disagree completely. Schroedinger equation allows you to calculate the wave function. However, the wave function does not "correctly predict the dynamics of quantum particles". It tells us only probabilities of this or that outcome. However, in real measurement only one outcome gets realized out of the whole range of possibilities. Nobody can tell (SE certainly doesn't tell that) which outcome will be realized. This choice is completely random and unpredictable. So, you cannot avoid talking about probability amplitudes and wave function collapse in quantum mechanics.

Eugene.

Hi Eugene,
my understanding of the dB-B theory is that given the initial conditions, the trajectory of the particle is determined. But the initial conditions ( like quantum phase) cannot be known completely. The theory is thus interpreted ensemble-wise. Given a distribution of initial conditions, the outcome is found to be the same as with Copenhagen. No probablitiy amplitudes, no imaginary numbers.

I myself don't have any preference for one or another interpretation of the SE as long as experiments are not contradicted.
 
  • #55
Mentz114 said:
Hi Eugene,
my understanding of the dB-B theory is that given the initial conditions, the trajectory of the particle is determined. But the initial conditions ( like quantum phase) cannot be known completely. The theory is thus interpreted ensemble-wise. Given a distribution of initial conditions, the outcome is found to be the same as with Copenhagen. No probablitiy amplitudes, no imaginary numbers.

I myself don't have any preference for one or another interpretation of the SE as long as experiments are not contradicted.

The fact is that experimental outcomes in quantum physics are random. No theory can predict them. Various "interpretations" try to "explain" this unpleasant fact and make it easier to swallow.

One interpretation says that the wave function collapses upon interaction with the measuring apparatus. Another interpretation says that this interaction creates a whole new world. Yet another interpretation says that the randomness occurs because of uncontrolled initial conditions. There are dozens of ways to invent excuses for our ignorance about nature's behavior, but none of them can go around the simple fact that measurements are random and unpredictable. I think that the easiest and the most honest "interpretation" is to say that we simply don't know the reason of this randomness, then shut up and calculate the probabilities.

Eugene.
 
  • #56
Eugene, I agree with everything in your post #55 above. My point is that one can get a statistical interpretation without the mathematics of probability amplitudes, at least for simpler problems.

M
 
  • #57
Mentz114 said:
Eugene, I agree with everything in your post #55 above. My point is that one can get a statistical interpretation without the mathematics of probability amplitudes, at least for simpler problems.

I am sorry, I probably misinterpreted what you said. I am not intimately familiar with dB-B approach (is it de Broglie - Bohm?). So, you are saying that it can describe two-slit interference without adding at some point two complex numbers (the amplitudes for passing through the left and right slit) and taking their square? Interesting.

Eugene.
 
  • #58
I think that all that can be done is dropping a few postulates. Wavefunction collapse is, of course, a nonsensical postulate or a theory claiming to be a fundamental theory rather than just a phenomenological description of Nature.

The Born rule can be derived from a much weaker postulate. All you need is a postulate that says that if the wavefuntion is in an eigenstate of an observable, then measuring it will yield the corresponding eigenvalue with probability 1.
 
  • #59
meopemuk said:
The fact is that experimental outcomes in quantum physics are random. No theory can predict them. Various "interpretations" try to "explain" this unpleasant fact and make it easier to swallow.

This is in fact not the difficulty at all. The difficulty resides in the fact that quantum theory as it is usually formulated, needs an arbitrary "transition point" (also called, the Heisenberg cut) where the fundamental dynamical rules *completely change*. The Schroedinger equation stops working, amplitudes give rise to probabilities when the a priori vectorial quantity (the state vector) gets components "with a meaning", the so-called preferred-basis problem. There is no way to give, in this picture, a *physical explanation* of the functioning of a measurement device, and hence the measurement basis in which one has to expand the state vector in order to transform it in a list of probabilities. There is no fundamental way to explain why a "position measurement" apparatus actually measures positions! At a certain point, you have to decide that quantum theory is no longer working "the usual way", that the system (apparatus ...) no longer has a quantum description (state vector), and that you are in "the classical domain".
So you have to decide then that quantum theory is NOT applicable to certain systems, although they are build up of atoms and particles and all that which ARE described by quantum theory. This is very well possible, but this is not an "interpretation" of a theory, it is a modification of its applicability domain. And no-one succeeded in writing down a sensible way in which this transition might occur, without inducing a lot of other problems.

THIS is the difficulty ; not so much that nature is or isn't random at a certain level.
 
  • #60
vanesch said:
This is in fact not the difficulty at all. The difficulty resides in the fact that quantum theory as it is usually formulated, needs an arbitrary "transition point" (also called, the Heisenberg cut) where the fundamental dynamical rules *completely change*. The Schroedinger equation stops working, amplitudes give rise to probabilities when the a priori vectorial quantity (the state vector) gets components "with a meaning", the so-called preferred-basis problem.

I don't see it as a difficulty at all. It appears as a difficulty only for those who want to see quantum mechanics (or whatever theory of nature they have in mind) as a complete and comprehensive description of the world, which encompasses everything including physical systems, measuring devices, minds of observers, whole universe, etc. In my opinion, it is too grandiose vision of the role of physics, and all paradoxes of quantum mechanics are clear evidence (for me) that this is not what theoretical physics is about.

I believe that the role of theoretical physics is much more modest. Its goal is to describe and predict observations made on physical systems by measuring apparatuses. The idea is to produce numbers which can be compared with results of experiments. In each well-defined experiment there is a clear separation between the measuring apparatus and the observed physical system. Only the physical system needs to be described by the wave function. There is no need for a description of the measuring apparatus, neither quantum nor classical description. Actually, the wave function of the system already takes into account the kind of measuring device that is used in the experiment. For example, when we write the wave fuinction of an electron in the position representation we already use the fact that the electron is observed by a device measuring position.

Of course, if we like, we can decide to include the measuring apparatus as a part of the physical system and shift the "Heisenberg cut". But then we will be speaking about a different experimental setup, whose description requires a completely different wave function.

In my opinion, this understanding of the limited role of physics is the most important lesson of quantum mechanics. We could have dreamed about precise and comprehensive description of the whole world in the days of classical Laplacian determinism. After the discovery of quantum mechanics, we should forget such dreams.

Eugene.
 
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  • #61
Count Iblis said:
The Born rule can be derived from a much weaker postulate. All you need is a postulate that says that if the wavefuntion is in an eigenstate of an observable, then measuring it will yield the corresponding eigenvalue with probability 1.

But the difficulty resides in the following: suppose I give you the physical description of an apparatus. What's the physical description of an apparatus ? I would say, a beginning state vector and a corresponding hamiltonian, no ? That's the quantum mechanical description of an apparatus. Now, given that, and only that, how do you deduce WHICH KIND OF MEASUREMENT BASIS goes with that apparatus ?

One can in fact do that, by fully assuming quantum theory all the way. One will then see that the interaction hamiltonian is such, that certain subspaces of states of the "system-under-study" couple with subspaces of states of the "measurement apparatus" in a kind of coarse-grained Schmidt decomposition of the overall state. Furthermore, if one introduces a quantum description of the environment (thermodynamical heat reservoir), usually, these couples ("subspace of states of measurement apparatus" and "subspace of states of system-under-study") remain stable against interaction with the environment ; again, by assuming that all this has a quantum description and that we don't leave the quantum-domain or the schroedinger equation. If one calls these subspaces of states of the measurement apparatus "the pointer states", then one can see that they are close to "classical states with different outcomes".
The whole above story is called "decoherence" and singles out specific subspaces of states of "macroscopic systems" which remain stable against interaction with the environment. From it, one can derive as such the "stable pointer states" and from this, and the interaction hamiltonian, one can then derive the "measurement basis" that the apparatus applies to the system.
But in order to do all this, we cannot collapse the wavefunction and we have to assume that quantum interactions and state descriptions are valid all the way up.

There is of course a way out, and that is by saying that there IS a preferred measurement basis, which is "position measurement". All measurements are then position measurements. When you do that, you can arrive at Bohmian mechanics, but the interpretational issues of Bohmian mechanics are not as simple as one might think at first, because the Bohmian ontology consists of two interacting worlds: the particle/position world (which we are used to from Newton), and on the other hand the quantum-mechancal wavefunction world which continues to evolve with superpositions and all that, just as in non-collapsing MWI quantum theory. This last world influences the former (the particle world), but not vice versa: the particle positions have no influence on the wave world. The problem as many people see it with Bohmian mechanics (except, of course, proponents of this view), is that the interaction between the wave world and the particle world is not relativistically invariant.
 
  • #62
meopemuk said:
In my opinion, it is too grandiose vision of the role of physics,
But I'm sure you understand that some people don't give up so easily.

and all paradoxes of quantum mechanics are clear evidence (for me) that this is not what theoretical physics is about.
By the way, to the best of my knowledge there are no paradoxes in quantum mechanics -- only pseudoparadoxes. Much like the twin pseudoparadox of special relativity, you only run into problems if you make unwarranted assumptions.


I believe that the role of theoretical physics is much more modest. Its goal is to describe and predict observations made on physical systems by measuring apparatuses.
...
There is no need for a description of the measuring apparatus, neither quantum nor classical description.
...
Of course, if we like, we can decide to include the measuring apparatus as a part of the physical system
You contradict yourself.


Actually, the wave function of the system already takes into account the kind of measuring device that is used in the experiment. For example, when we write the wave fuinction of an electron in the position representation we already use the fact that the electron is observed by a device measuring position.
It's not the wavefunction that takes that into account. The wavefunction has no idea what we're measuring. It's the choice of representation that takes into account what we're measuring.


In my opinion, this understanding of the limited role of physics is the most important lesson of quantum mechanics. We could have dreamed about precise and comprehensive description of the whole world in the days of classical Laplacian determinism. After the discovery of quantum mechanics, we should forget such dreams.

Eugene.
I take a wholly different lesson -- quantum mechanics emphasizes, more so than any other theory, the need to stick to experimentally meaningful questions when studying physics.
 
  • #63
meopemuk said:
I don't see it as a difficulty at all. It appears as a difficulty only for those who want to see quantum mechanics (or whatever theory of nature they have in mind) as a complete and comprehensive description of the world, which encompasses everything including physical systems, measuring devices, minds of observers, whole universe, etc. In my opinion, it is too grandiose vision of the role of physics, and all paradoxes of quantum mechanics are clear evidence (for me) that this is not what theoretical physics is about.

In a way I agree with you: I think one should remain modest and most probably our understanding of nature is still very remote from what is needed to get an overall universal picture. So all this is "running with the legs we have". However, I extend "theoretical physics" to "there's a banana on the table" too: it is a primitive form of theoretical physics!

So this is my point: once we have learned from quantum mechanics (and we already got a warning shot from relativity) that "theoretical physics" (in other words, trying to make sense of our observations) is not going to be a smooth ride in understanding the meaning of life, the universe and everything, and given that all intellectual activity related to observations is, in one way or another "theoretical physics", then we can only conclude that we don't know ANYTHING about the world and never will. We then realize that we don't even know whether that part of "theoretical physics from kindergarten" which tells us that there is a banana on the table has any sense.

So, or we try to make sense, in as much as we can, about all of it, or we simply say that nothing we ever deduced from observations has any sense, and we can just as well dwell in mysticism. Most people seem to prefer to place some "sane cut" somewhere, between "what's obviously true" on one hand, and what's "just theoretical constructs" on the other hand, but any such cut runs sooner or later in difficulties of logic, because of the grey zone.

I believe that the role of theoretical physics is much more modest. Its goal is to describe and predict observations made on physical systems by measuring apparatuses. The idea is to produce numbers which can be compared with results of experiments. In each well-defined experiment there is a clear separation between the measuring apparatus and the observed physical system.

That's where the difficulty resides: the clear separation between the measurement apparatus and the observed system. Even von Neumann realized this already in 1932. It is especially important for an instrumentalist, who is to study the physical interaction between the measurement apparatus and the system under study! For the instrumentalist, the "system under study" is the measurement apparatus. It's maybe because I'm an instrumentalist, that I take on this stance, btw :smile:

Only the physical system needs to be described by the wave function. There is no need for a description of the measuring apparatus, neither quantum nor classical description. Actually, the wave function of the system already takes into account the kind of measuring device that is used in the experiment. For example, when we write the wave fuinction of an electron in the position representation we already use the fact that the electron is observed by a device measuring position.

Again, except if you want to study the physics of a measurement apparatus!

Of course, if we like, we can decide to include the measuring apparatus as a part of the physical system and shift the "Heisenberg cut". But then we will be speaking about a different experimental setup, whose description requires a completely different wave function.

Right, and where do we stop ? With the "ultimate observation", which is nothing else but subjective experience. Even that, von Neumann realized.

In my opinion, this understanding of the limited role of physics is the most important lesson of quantum mechanics. We could have dreamed about precise and comprehensive description of the whole world in the days of classical Laplacian determinism. After the discovery of quantum mechanics, we should forget such dreams.

I agree with you. But I take this even further: the limited role of ANY knowledge and not only of physics. Quantum mechanics, IMO, showed us up to what point things that we thought we knew, are in fact up to a certain level, imaginary constructions of the mind. It depends or not whether you want to keep a "sanity cut" and keep insisting on the reality of the banana on the table (taking granted the logical difficulties that this will induce), or whether you're willing to just throw up the arms in the air and say that in the end, we don't know ANYTHING for sure (partly my position), or whether you say that whatever strange things your most complete formal knowledge gives you, it must somehow more be related to any "reality" than whatever intuitive idea you had of it (also partly my position).

So I'm in a kind of quantum superposition of the three views on reality :-p and I won't collapse in either.
 
  • #64
Hurkyl said:
By the way, to the best of my knowledge there are no paradoxes in quantum mechanics -- only pseudoparadoxes. Much like the twin pseudoparadox of special relativity, you only run into problems if you make unwarranted assumptions.

Seems redundant terminology. Aren't all paradoxes pseudoparadoxes?
 
  • #65
Vanesch, that's also how I think about this issue. I.m.o. MWI + decoherence is the most natural thing to assume. If one proposes a real collapse of the wave function then there should be experimental evidence for that to motivate this. One has to demomonstrate that the time evolution of an isolated system is not exactly unitary. Some time ago I read about a proposal to look for such effects in observatons of neutrinos from astrophysical sources. Neutrino oscillations lead to neutrinos of one flavor evolving into a superposition of the three flavors. But if a pure neutrino state evolves into a mixed state then that can be detected as it affects the relative probabilities for detecting the three flavors.
 
  • #66
Hurkyl said:
It's not the wavefunction that takes that into account. The wavefunction has no idea what we're measuring. It's the choice of representation that takes into account what we're measuring.

Yes, I agree.


Hurkyl said:
I take a wholly different lesson -- quantum mechanics emphasizes, more so than any other theory, the need to stick to experimentally meaningful questions when studying physics.

Yes, that's what I wanted to say.

Eugene.
 
  • #67
vanesch said:
then we can only conclude that we don't know ANYTHING about the world and never will.
[...] or we simply say that nothing we ever deduced from observations has any sense, and we can just as well dwell in mysticism.

Why such pessimism? We do know something don't we?


vanesch said:
Right, and where do we stop ? With the "ultimate observation", which is nothing else but subjective experience. Even that, von Neumann realized.

The place to stop is determined by the concrete experimental situation. Ask the experimentalist conducting the experiment where is the boundary physical system/measuring device and you'll get a pretty accurate answer.

Eugene.
 
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  • #68
jostpuur said:
Seems redundant terminology. Aren't all paradoxes pseudoparadoxes?
No. In a pseudoparadox, the contradiction is the fault of the arguer; typically he makes a subtle mistake or unwarranted assumptions. In a paradox, the contradiction is the fault of the system.

Examples of actual paradoxes are the Liar's paradox of 'naive' formal logic and Russell's paradox of 'naive' set theory.
 
  • #69
Hmmm, is there always something "naive" about a system allowing for a paradox? What about the Banach-Tarski Paradox :smile:
 
  • #70
Actually, the Banach-Tarski could be called a pseudoparadox...
 
  • #71
Count Iblis said:
[...] I read about a proposal to look for [non-unitary evolution] effects in observatons of neutrinos from astrophysical sources. Neutrino oscillations lead to neutrinos of one flavor evolving into a superposition of the three flavors. But if a pure neutrino state evolves into a mixed state then that can be detected as it affects the relative probabilities for detecting the three flavors.
That's accounted for by flavor eigenstates not coinciding with mass eigenstates.
Where is the non-unitarity?

- strangerep.
 
  • #72
strangerep said:
That's accounted for by flavor eigenstates not coinciding with mass eigenstates.
Where is the non-unitarity?

- strangerep.


That's right. However, decoherence would yield an extra measurable effect. See e.g. this article
 
  • #73
meopemuk said:
Why such pessimism? We do know something don't we?

That's not pessimism. It is realising up to what point we don't have any absolute knowledge, but only relative mental constructs which are useful. That's good enough reason to keep them, but we mustn't over-estimate the absolute character of any form of knowledge. There's no problem in living with the knowledge that our "knowledge" is up to a point arbitrary, conventional and probably even wrong. In fact, it frees oneself of dogmatic "holdons" which generate difficulties in thinking freely. But, as I said, there's no reason to *discard* our "shaky" knowledge, as it is still the best we can do.

The place to stop is determined by the concrete experimental situation. Ask the experimentalist conducting the experiment where is the boundary physical system/measuring device and you'll get a pretty accurate answer.

As I said, for the instrumentalist, this is not obvious!
For instance, in a photomultiplier, when is the "measurement" done ? By the freeing of an electron from the photocathode ? But if we study that in more detail, we do it with a quantum-mechanical description, and the photo-electric effect becomes a "system-under-study". Is it during the electron multiplication ? But then, the electron-metal interaction can also be accounted for quantum-mechanically...

Is it when the amplifier amplifies the signal on the anode ? But then, this amplifier has a fist stage with a FET transistor which can have a quantum-mechanical description...

Of course, at a certain point, the instrumentalist knows that a classical approximation will be good enough for the specific purpose, and places his "cut" there. But that's a matter of approximation, not something fundamental.
 
  • #74
strangerep said:
That's accounted for by flavor eigenstates not coinciding with mass eigenstates.
Where is the non-unitarity?

The point is that it would probably be a lack of quantum interference there where it is expected and no decoherence effect can explain away the non-observation of the interference. In other words, it would be an attempt to falsify the applicability of quantum mechanics proper.
 
  • #75
Count Iblis said:
Hmmm, is there always something "naive" about a system allowing for a paradox? What about the Banach-Tarski Paradox :smile:

Isn't this a bit like the counter-intuitive fact that an absolutely divergent series can always be re-arranged to yield any finite sum ?
 
  • #76
vanesch said:
Isn't this a bit like the counter-intuitive fact that an absolutely divergent series can always be re-arranged to yield any finite sum ?

Yes, but the Banach-Tarski is much more counterintuitive (you only need to cut the ball into a finite number of pieces and reassemble them to make the new ball of twice the volume). I think that Banach and Tarski argued that the Axiom of Choice should be be dropped because of their theorem.
 
  • #77
vanesch said:
Personally, I don't find solipsism "unworthy of discussion" ; I only find it not a very useful ontology hypothesis, because we stop immediately.

If the solipsist physicist assumes that the universe is in some way the product of his own
mind, and this universe includes all the physics textbooks he owns, why does he have
to study these books year after year after year, when he himself is, in fact, the author?

:confused: :smile:

Regards, Hans
 
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  • #78
Hans de Vries said:
If the solipsist physicist assumes that the universe is in some way the product of his own
mind, and this universe includes all the physics textbooks he owns, why does he have
to study these books year after year after year, when he himself is, in fact, the author?

:confused: :smile:

Regards, Hans
Because he forgot his creation...:smile:
 
  • #79
Please elaborate: propose an experiment that distinguishes between a real banana and the solipsist hypothesis.
Mentz114 said:
You cannot be serious ! Solipsism is a ridiculous idea and not worth discussing.

I'm sorry for jumping into the late discussion and I'm not sure what you guys mean with solipsism in the context of physics, but I associate it closely to subjective reality in the sense that the local perception of reality needs a representation which I think is a relation to the environment, a sort of mirror. This I think is related to the subjective and relational interpretations of QM. The only reality for an observer is IMO represented by his relations to the environment. And a real observer or particle can most probably (I think) not keep infinite amounts of relations, the information capacity is bound to limit the relational complexity.

I personally don't think this is ridicilous. I rather think the opposite idea that there is an objective absolute reality is unfounded and overly speculative, whose purpose is to simplify the matter. But I think this simplification really produces inconsistencies.

OTOH if solipsism means physicists human MIND then it is a statement of insufficient scope, unless the concept of mind is also attributed to an arbitrary system, like particles "minds". But that terminology gets awkward and a bit silly I agree.

Mentz114 said:
We have to accept that we can believe our senses and that there is an objective reality or physics has no meaning or purpose.

I disagree with this. It still has meaning. The fact that reality is relational and subjective is not the same as to say it's totally arbitrary. Also I think that one can find that communicating/interacting observers will mutually favour understanding, and this will render an effective objective reality as emergent, but I think it is not _fundamentally objective_ which I personally think is an extremely important distinction.

/Fredrik
 
  • #80
Hans de Vries said:
If the solipsist physicist assumes that the universe is in some way the product of his own mind, and this universe includes all the physics textbooks he owns, why does he have to study these books year after year after year, when he himself is, in fact, the author?

In the same way as you may not understand your dreams, I guess... If you dream that you are a detective who's working on a case and cannot find the murderer, then you could say the same thing: how can it be that you, as creator of your own dream, wouldn't know who's the guilty one.
The idea of solipsism is not somehow that you are fully knowledgeably your own "god and creator" or something, but rather that the only thing you can be sure of, is that you undergo subjective impressions and that those impressions do not necessarily have to come from an evident "outside reality".
 
  • #81
Fra said:
I'm sorry for jumping into the late discussion and I'm not sure what you guys mean with solipsism in the context of physics, but I associate it closely to subjective reality in the sense that the local perception of reality needs a representation which I think is a relation to the environment, a sort of mirror. This I think is related to the subjective and relational interpretations of QM. The only reality for an observer is IMO represented by his relations to the environment. And a real observer or particle can most probably (I think) not keep infinite amounts of relations, the information capacity is bound to limit the relational complexity.

I personally don't think this is ridicilous. I rather think the opposite idea that there is an objective absolute reality is unfounded and overly speculative, whose purpose is to simplify the matter. But I think this simplification really produces inconsistencies.

This is to me a very good representation of what "solipsism" in quantum interpretations means, and what is the scope of "a reality hypothesis".
 
  • #82
Hello Fredrik, I would like to restate my personal view that solipsism is ridiculous. How can any rational being contemplate for a moment the absurdity that they ( him, her, it) is 'dreaming' the universe. There is no reason whatever to think this.

I rather think the opposite idea that there is an objective absolute reality is unfounded and overly speculative, whose purpose is to simplify the matter. But I think this simplification really produces inconsistencies.
In my view, utter rubbish. I hope that isn't considered too strong, but this is a physics forum, and someone is telling me that assuming an objective reality is a 'simplification' !
What inconsistencies are found from this assumption ?


If you continue to disagree with me - I'll undream you !
 
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  • #83
Mentz114 said:
Hello Fredrik, I would like to restate my personal view that solipsism is ridiculous. How can any rational being contemplate for a moment the absurdity that they ( him, her, it) is 'dreaming' the universe. There is no reason whatever to think this.
Reason is a manifestation of imagination just as dreaming is. The weird things would be to consider dreaming inside this dream.
 
  • #84
Mentz114 said:
Hello Fredrik, I would like to restate my personal view that solipsism is ridiculous. How can any rational being contemplate for a moment the absurdity that they ( him, her, it) is 'dreaming' the universe.
A rational being wouldn't reject the possibility simply because they find it aesthetically displeasing. :wink:

There is no reason whatever to think this.
What reason is there to think otherwise?



As I understand it, solipsism's main practical use is as a counterexample, and for proof-by-contradiction-like arguments.


For example, as a being who instinctively rejects solipsism, you should therefore tend to reject any philosophical position that reduces to solipsism. For example, the position that all knowledge of the universe comes entirely from sensory experience.

(If our only knowledge comes from sensory experience, that means we cannot trust our theories and conceptions about what happens "beyond" our sensory apparatuses -- and thus all our knowledge of the 'external universe' is a mental fiction we've cooked up to organize our sensory experience)
 
  • #85
If our only knowledge comes from sensory experience, that means we cannot trust our theories and conceptions about what happens "beyond" our sensory apparatuses -- and thus all our knowledge of the 'external universe' is a mental fiction we've cooked up to organize our sensory experience.
Hi Hurkyl, nothing important is happening beyond your sensory experiences. If important parts of actuality were not perceptable by us, we'd have unexplained, ie magic phenomena all the time. I have not seen convincing evidence that my senses are not telling me everything I need to know to do physics, and make machines that work.

For example, as a being who instinctively rejects solipsism, you should therefore tend to reject any philosophical position that reduces to solipsism. For example, the position that all knowledge of the universe comes entirely from sensory experience.
Not logical in view of what I said above. Why is it so wrong to assume my senses are correct and not deceiving me (by Occam) ?
 
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  • #86
Mentz114 said:
Hi Hurkyl, nothing important is happening beyond your sensory experiences. If important parts of actuality were not perceptable by us, we'd have unexplained, ie magic phenomena all the time.
I could take this statement several ways, depending on just what you mean by "perceptable". Choose the response that best fits your intent.

. If something was causing magic phenomena, then it wouldn't be imperceptable.

. Lots of important things aren't perceptable, and once really were unexplained. But that hasn't prevented us from postulating theories about them.


I have not seen convincing evidence that my senses are not telling me everything I need to know to do physics, and make machines that work.
But the question is whether there is really a machine out there, or if the existence of the machine is a concept you invented to organize your sensory experience.


The modern age has given us wonderful examples of the latter -- there is no 'real' object called an icon, but it is certainly a good descriptor of my visual experiences with my computer. Similarly my television set doesn't contain people or the land of Hyrule, nor does my stereo contain a symphony orchestra.

And yet, my mind still organizes this data as it would anything 'real'. I can see and manipulate the icon, I can recognize 'people' in my television, and can learn the physics of Hyrule, I can pick out the different instruments in my 'stereo', and so forth.

And it also gives examples of the inverse hypothesis too -- it gives examples where we infer existence in a decidedly intellectual way, rather than directly with our senses. We have all sorts of wonderful tools for measuring things we couldn't otherwise see. And I assume you believe that I exist; how did you infer that?


Why is it so wrong to assume my senses are correct and not deceiving me by Occam.
Nobody said your senses are deceiving you. If you take the position that your senses are all that you can trust, then the conclusion is that your mind is deceiving you. Raw sensory data doesn't tell you that apple exists. You simply see an image. It is your mind that processes that image and declares that there is a real apple out there.

So, if you take the position that you can only trust your senses, that means you cannot trust your mental constructs. You can trust that you saw an image, but you cannot trust the inference that there is an apple out there.



Of course, most people when they say "sensory experience", they usually mean "sensory experience and all of the mental constructs that I like to use". And that's an incredibly important philosophical distinction.
 
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  • #87
Mentz114 said:
...If important parts of actuality were not perceptable by us, we'd have unexplained, ie magic phenomena all the time. I have not seen convincing evidence that my senses are not telling me everything I need to know to do physics...

Actually, the path integral formulation of QM requires us to account for an infinity of other possibilities that we do not observe/preceive. We seem to have to make an assumption about things we do not preceive in order to account for things we do see/observe. This is very interesting. Is reality (things we observe) really the result of presuming without evidence/observation an infinite number of other possiblities? Does reality consist of just our musings about other possibilities we will never observe? I'm not sure what to make of all this.
 
  • #88
But the question is whether there is really a machine out there, or if the existence of the machine is a concept you invented to organize your sensory experience.

Suppose there is no machine out there, then where am I and why do I have senses ?
Am I the machine ? This looks like a conspiracy-theory philosophy.

If there's no objective reality, then surely I cannot exist either.

That clinches it for me.

The modern age has given us wonderful examples of the latter -- there is no 'real' object called an icon, but it is certainly a good descriptor of my visual experiences with my computer. Similarly my television set doesn't contain people or the land of Hyrule, nor does my stereo contain a symphony orchestra.
I disagree. The icon does exist, as a collection of coloured pixels on the screen. The music exists as ordered information stored on disc or whatever even when you're not playing it, and when it is playing the air vibrates as well, and your eardrums.

So, if you take the position that you can only trust your senses, that means you cannot trust your mental constructs. You can trust that you saw an image, but you cannot trust the inference that there is an apple out there.
I don't take that position. Yes I can and do trust my mental constructs. I can test the inference by eating the apple. It's never failed, it was an apple every time.

Hurkyl, respectfully, you do a good argument but it's tiring and I have better things to do. I don't want to be a last worder - so, I wonder if there's anything we can agree on?

Regards,
M

Friend:
Actually, the path integral formulation of QM requires us to account for an infinity of other possibilities that we do not observe/preceive. We seem to have to make an assumption about things we do not preceive in order to account for things we do see/observe.
There's nothing strange going here - it's because probability is involved.
Whenever we work out a probability we do so over a range of possible outcomes, only one of which we will see per throw ( so to speak). But things which won't happen must be included in the calculation.
 
  • #89
Mentz114 said:
Hurkyl, respectfully, you do a good argument but it's tiring and I have better things to do. I don't want to be a last worder - so, I wonder if there's anything we can agree on?
Well, let's recall how this tangent even started! meopemuk, vanesch, and I were debating over what really exists -- meopemuk was taking the position that labelling some things (like spots on a scintillating screen) as being "directly observable", and thus real, whereas he labelled other things (like superposition) as not being "directly observable", and thus unreal.

And so, vanesch presented the usual derivation of solipsism from meopemuk's hypothesis that only what is "directly observable" is real -- vanesch demonstrated that the notion of a banana is a mental construct. The implication is that if meopemuk really insists on his hypothesis, then he must consider the banana unreal.

This is where you chimed in with your remark that there is an easy test to see if the banana is real.


But you and I agree that the banana is a mental construct -- that is the important point. If everyone agrees the banana is a mental construct, and also that the banana is real, then we see that the quality of being a mental construct does not render something unreal, and so meopemuk's argument loses most of its force.
 
  • #90
Mentz114 said:
Friend:
There's nothing strange going here - it's because probability is involved.
Whenever we work out a probability we do so over a range of possible outcomes, only one of which we will see per throw ( so to speak). But things which won't happen must be included in the calculation.

This gets into the question as to whether mere possibilities can be actually real that we have to account for them in our theoretical models. In QM mere possibilities actually have a real effect in interference patterns, etc. We know that possibilities are a real consideration in the mind of those who are trying to decide what to do because they are uncertain as to what is real. But that nature itself seems to consider the possibilities begs the question to whether there really is some objective reality or whether it's all in our heads.
 
  • #91
friend said:
But that nature itself seems to consider the possibilities begs the question to whether there really is some objective reality or whether it's all in our heads.
I don't see why.
 
  • #92
Hurkyl said:
I don't see why.

Well, typically I would think that possibilities are by definition things that could happen but do not necessarily happen. The only other place that mere possibilities do have an effect is in our minds as we consider how to prepare for the most likely alternatives. If reality also seems to be "considering" all the possibilities, then that makes one wonder if reality isn't the result of a mind.
 
  • #93
Posted by Friend.
The only other place that mere possibilities do have an effect is in our minds as we consider how to prepare for the most likely alternatives.

If you strike out the word 'other' I would agree with that. That would describe what happens when a wave function is used to calculate a probability.

If reality also seems to be "considering" all the possibilities, then that makes one wonder if reality isn't the result of a mind.

Good point. But surely probability is a psychological construct without a correlate in the real world ? There is no probability meter, we have to count events in order to estimate the values.

You've made a crucial distinction - does the universe 'consider' anything, or just happen ?
 
  • #94
Mentz114 said:
Good point. But surely probability is a psychological construct without a correlate in the real world ? There is no probability meter, we have to count events in order to estimate the values.

You've made a crucial distinction - does the universe 'consider' anything, or just happen ?

This correspondence between the probability considerations in our head and the inteference of possibilities in nature may indicate that nature really does operated by the same logic that we use in our minds.
 
  • #95
Mentz114 said:
Hello Fredrik, I would like to restate my personal view that solipsism is ridiculous. How can any rational being contemplate for a moment the absurdity that they ( him, her, it) is 'dreaming' the universe. There is no reason whatever to think this.

Mmm "dreaming" wouldn't be my choice of wording in the context of physics as it usually associates to human specific things. And I don't suggest the universe doesn't exists only in the _human_ mind.

I rather think the opposite idea that there is an objective absolute reality is unfounded and overly speculative, whose purpose is to simplify the matter. But I think this simplification really produces inconsistencies.
Mentz114 said:
In my view, utter rubbish. I hope that isn't considered too strong, but this is a physics forum, and someone is telling me that assuming an objective reality is a 'simplification' !
What inconsistencies are found from this assumption ?

I see an inconsistencies in the line of reasoning and line of logic, but this admittedly overlaps with philosophical questions. But then, foundations of science in general have roots in philosophy.

IMO, the parts of modern physics and QM I like the most is that science deals with we can observe and measure. Which effectively means we are dealing with information. We make observations and measurements of "black boxes". What is really inside this black box we can only guess from the information we have about it. I consider the information to be first instance of reality. The information I have is my relations to the black box.

The best I can do is to make the best possible bet. Unless there is a way to ever define the best objective bet, it's a bit naive to think that the unknown has a definite shape until we know the shape.

My induced reality is an expectation, and in generally expectations are conditional on the prior information at hand.

For example. In normal QM, the probability space itself is assume to be objective and known with certainty - this alone does not quite IMO comply to the basic idea that we should deal with information at hand, and that information is always induced. How does the induction of the probability space itself look like? Some analysis of this will result in a relational interpretation of reality.

If the probability space in the one-particle QM is uncertain, QFT comes to the rescue, but that is just doing the same thing over again. The question remains but applied to the fock space. Do we observe the fock space itself? It's clearly a sort of idealisation, that is admittedly excellent in many cases. But I think "excellent" just isn't good enough when you try to make some deeper connections with the fundamentals.

If you like to think there exists a objective reality, then I would like to see a fool proof formula that guarantees that any two arbitrary observers will always see the same reality when consuming different subsets of the information flow (note that two observers can't typically make the SAME observation), and explain how the actual comparasion takes place.

Also it is completely unrealistic to think that a finite observer can consume *and retain* all the information in the universe. I think the continuum hypothesis is another questionable fact.

Also, what exactly is a probability - in terms of something real measureable and retainable to a real observer? If it's not an idealisation, what is it?

The axioms of probability applied to reality is a clear idealisation - but a damn good one I agree. I think anyone who doesn't agree with that isn't looking close enough.

Considering the swampy ground we are all on, I don't see why it's obvious that there is an objective reality, and how this statement can be verified?

My opinion is rather not that objective reality will never be found, it's that util it actually IS found, it remains in the clouds and the current reality is based on this uncertainty. At least mine :)

/Fredrik
 
  • #96
Friend:
This correspondence between the probability considerations in our head and the inteference of possibilities in nature may indicate that nature really does operated by the same logic that we use in our minds.
That's quite a leap to make, given the uncertain status of current theories. There is a debate about whether the ultimate reality is deterministic and we just don't interface completely with it. Check out the later works of Gerhard t'Hooft ( Nobel Laureate in Physics).

Which brings in Fra :
Also it is completely unrealistic to think that a finite observer can consume *and retain* all the information in the universe.
I agree. From there it's a short step the the 'incomplete information' hypotheseis of tHooft.

Also, what exactly is a probability - in terms of something real measureable and retainable to a real observer? If it's not an idealisation, what is it?
Yep. I would call it a psychological construct and I don't grant it physical existence outside our heads.

Considering the swampy ground we are all on, I don't see why it's obvious that there is an objective reality, ..
Does this not contradict your earlier statement ( first quote ) where you refer to the 'universe' ? Surely this is objective reality by another name ?

My opinion is rather not that objective reality will never be found, it's that until it actually IS found, it remains in the clouds and the current reality is based on this uncertainty. At least mine :)

Yep. Even the best physical theories are approximations, and always will be because, as you we agree, the Universe is a lot bigger and more complicated than we are.
 
  • #97
Mentz114 said:
Fra said:
Also, what exactly is a probability - in terms of something real measureable and retainable to a real observer? If it's not an idealisation, what is it?

Yep. I would call it a psychological construct and I don't grant it physical existence outside our heads.

So we agree that the probability formalism is sort of an idealisation. Then the question is, how come it is so successful? and how can we improve it?

In my opinion, probabilities are like optimal bets. And for reasons already mentioned, it is not straightforward to define an objective measure of "best", for several raasons.

But still, the basic problem is... we are stuck with incomplete information, and lack of solid references... so it seems we both need to build are references AND then use that references to place bets. How is this done, in the best way, to make sure we survive? If we can't figure out anthing better, we can also just try anything at will, and we die when in constructive disharmony with the environment.

I agree it's a bit violaition of terminology but I think of subjective probabilites as subjective odds, and I'm still working on my own understanding here but I definitely do think that these odds can be given a more solid interpretation (but not fundamentally objective). The fact that subjective observers can still coexists and communicate, lacking common univeral reference is a mystery but I think also the key to crack the nut.

Mentz114 said:
Fra said:
Considering the swampy ground we are all on, I don't see why it's obvious that there is an objective reality, ..

Does this not contradict your earlier statement ( first quote ) where you refer to the 'universe' ? Surely this is objective reality by another name ?

I see your objection. What I am suggesting is that the reality is an emergent and fundamentally subjective thing, but "subjective" IMO does NOT refer just to human brain. The subjectivity concept here, to me, also includes for example the perception of things relative to say a particle. I picture that this particle relates and reacts to the environment and the relations are represented by the particles internal state relative to the environment. However, for an outside observer the particles internal state is seen as a superposition of emerged possibilities only.

If you picture a communication problem, I picture an observer, a particle, or any subsystem to act like a transciever. But the transciever itsel is "sefassembled" and keeps changing. Clearly the self-desctructive transcievers will not live on.

Mentz114 said:
Yep. Even the best physical theories are approximations, and always will be because, as you we agree, the Universe is a lot bigger and more complicated than we are.

I agree with this. And this is exactly what leads my to my position. This is why the theories themselves are not fundamental. The more fundamental thing seems to be the method or physics that govern the evolution of the theories. I see it as a information problem, a learning problem, where we are crippled by insufficient and dynamic memory.

My personal idea is that each observer, can only resolve a certain complexity. The organisation of the memory is under constant equilibration. Coupled to this is new input and released output (interactions with the environment). I have some thinking where the expectations of the probabilities are in fact coded in the observers internal state. (with observer here I mean any system, a particle, or system of particle - not just a human). The "processing" is I pictured a sort of "stochastic process", coupled to unexpected input, and a bit random but still controlled emission/radiation or information. The dynamics needs to be worked out, but in principle I imagine the following improvement to the normal probability theory.

The observers internal state (represented but the state of it's microstructure), limits the size of the probability space (no continuum is allowed). A small particle can in my thinking simply not simultanesouly relate to the entire universe (I think this will have impacts on some renormalisation problems - there will be "natural" cutoffs, but they won't be hard cutoffs). Therefor the wavefunction of the entire universe, gets a very special meaning. The limit is imposed by the complexity of the observer itself. This is one reason for the "subjective reality" as I refer to it.

Next, there is the concept of uncertainty and change. The observers microstructure can be used to encode also patterns of change, and when stored in the same microstructure I think there willl exists a relation between the different effective probability spaces.

The probability space itself will in my thinking, sort of take on an observable character. But the probability space is then inherently subjective (== observer relative).

/Fredrik
 
  • #98
friend said:
Well, typically I would think that possibilities are by definition things that could happen but do not necessarily happen.

Probabilities are lack of knowledge. What's the probability that Napoleon lost at Waterloo ? It's only when we didn't know that we could eventually assign it a probability ; that is: we could lump the event in a bigger bag of similar events which all were compatible with the knowledge we had, and then we could look at the ratio of "favorable outcomes" to the total number of events in the bag. So a probability is the combination of two things: the event at hand, and the bag of "equivalent" events, satisfying all the information we have about it. A probability is not a property of a single event, which happens one way or another. After the fact, there's no point in assigning probabilities to outcomes. Napoleon lost, with 100% certainty.

Now, lack of knowledge doesn't mean that somehow that knowledge would be possible to obtain, but we don't have it: this assumption is determinism. It is very well possible that in all of nature, as it is NOW, there is no way to tell what a future event will bring. But that future event will happen in one way or another, and there doesn't need to be a mechanism for that. Nature can just be a "big bag of events", where things "just happen" the way they happen, with no "machinery behind it". But it is not because we could, in 1814, only lump in Napoleon's future battle in a bag of similar (real or hypothetical) battles, and that we could only say, in that bag, that in about 40% of cases, he would loose, that there were realities to these other outcomes.

So it is not because of a probabilistic nature of the description of future events that the alternatives have to "exist" in some way. They only exist on paper because we had a bag of possibilities, starting from our current knowledge.

The reason for considering existing alternatives in quantum theory (the MWI view) is NOT inspired because of the probabilistic nature of its outcomes, it is because of the way the formalism arrives at these probabilities.
 
  • #99
I agree to a certain extent with friends view.

Mentz114 said:
You've made a crucial distinction - does the universe 'consider' anything, or just happen ?

It is equally valid to ask wether human brain really "consider" anything, or wether it just obeys the laws of physics and the "consider" is a purely subjective sensation, and that the human brain happens to be very complex but still operated by the same principles?

In a certain way, I think nature just happens, but "considerations" can probably be defined for an arbitrary system in the sense of internal equilibration and preservation of successful configurations in relation to an environment. This need not involve human brains.

The simplest possible case is a mictrostructure that serves as a storage devices. The state of the microstructure will either be self-preserving in the environment, or not. This will I think imply a selection. A stable system is one which sort of is in maximal agreement with the environment.

I think of the probabilities, implemented in the microstructures as combinations or distinguishable states. And all things are subject to change and revision. A certain environment will "select" stable systems. But there is also a feedback in the environment by any system.

My objection to the critics to the relational ideas is that this necessarily has to all take place at the human brain. I have no problem to in principle imagine this for a generic system. The "knowledge" of the environment an observer/system has, is completely represented by it's internal configuration - as this is "selected" during interaction with the environment which ultimately leads to maximum equilibration or "agreement".

Nature doesn't "think" - it just seems to take the shortest path, or most likely path - as judged from the subjective viewpoint - but I think this will as the complexity increase give the appearance of "intelligence". But it has IMO nothing to do with anything "human", divine or anything such. It's still fundamental reality.

/Fredrik
 
  • #100
"Shortest path" in my thinking is essentially nothing but similar to occams razor or the principle of minimum speculation, and the measure "minimum" is subjective - two observers will generally first of all have difficult to even communicate their measures, but also to agree since they are conditional on different things. But this subjectiveness is I think exactly the reason for the non-trivial dynamics that result.

/Fredrik
 

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