Impulse of a force - effect on linear and angular momentum

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on understanding the relationship between impulse of a force and changes in linear and angular momentum during a collision. The principles of conservation state that total linear and angular momentum before a collision equals that after. The correct interpretation is that the sum of impulse plus initial linear momentum equals final linear momentum, and the sum of torque from impulse plus initial angular momentum equals final angular momentum. Impulse is defined as the integral of force over time, equating to the change in momentum. This clarification helps in grasping the concepts of momentum in collisions.
Froskoy
Messages
26
Reaction score
0
Hi,

I'm having trouble understanding what the relation is between the impulse of a force during a collision and the changes in linear and angular momentum during the collision.

I know that the principle of conservation of linear momentum says that the total linear momentum before is equal to the total linear momentum after and the principle of conservation of angular momentum states that the total angular momentum before is equal to the total angular momentum after, but am struggling with the interpretation of this.

Do these principles mean that

1) the sum of the impulse + linear momentum before + angular momentum before = linear momentum before + angular momentum after

OR

2) (the sum of impulse + linear momentum before = linear momentum after) AND ALSO (the sum of impulse + angular momentum before = angular momentum after)?

With very many thanks,

Froskoy.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi Froskoy! :smile:

Linear momentum and angular momentum can't be added.

(for a start, linear momentum is a vector, but angular momentum is a pseudovector!)

it's 3) … (the sum of impulse + linear momentum before = linear momentum after) AND ALSO (the sum of torque (or moment) of impulse + angular momentum before = angular momentum after) :wink:
 
There is no substitute for a good Physics text. Following from Halliday - Resnick
p2 - p1 = integral 1>2 dp = integral 1>2 Force dt = Impulse

The integral of force over the time interval during which force acts is called the
impulse of the force and is equal to the change in momentum. Both the impulse
and linear momentum are vectors and have same units and dimensions.
And is area under force time curve.
integral t1>t2 Force dt
 
Thanks very much! It all makes a lot more sense now!
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'
Hello! I have a question regarding a beam on an inclined plane. I was considering a beam resting on two supports attached to an inclined plane. I was almost sure that the lower support must be more loaded. My imagination about this problem is shown in the picture below. Here is how I wrote the condition of equilibrium forces: $$ \begin{cases} F_{g\parallel}=F_{t1}+F_{t2}, \\ F_{g\perp}=F_{r1}+F_{r2} \end{cases}. $$ On the other hand...
Back
Top