- #1
haleycomet2
- 29
- 0
According to the faraday's law,the induced emf is proportional to the magnetic flux change linking the conductor.However,I wonder why there is induced emf when conductor is moving in uniform magnetic field,because i think that the magnetic flux linking to it is always the same as it move in the uniform magnetic field.
ps:I suppose that magnetic flux is continuously flowing.
Can anyone point out where I wrong?Thank you.
ps:I suppose that magnetic flux is continuously flowing.
Can anyone point out where I wrong?Thank you.