Infinite square well expectation value problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the expectation value of a particle in an infinite square well, specifically for the first excited state (n=2). Participants are exploring the setup of the problem, including the potential energy conditions and the appropriate wave function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to establish the expectation value formula and question the correct form of the wave function. There is uncertainty about the integration bounds and the implications of the potential energy setup.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered insights into the wave function and the expectation value operators, while others are revising their initial thoughts based on further study. There is an ongoing exploration of the mathematical relationships involved, particularly concerning the operators and their expectation values.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the normalization condition for the wave function and the implications of the infinite potential well setup. There is acknowledgment of previous errors in notation and assumptions, indicating a learning process in progress.

Fakestreet123
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Homework Statement


A particle in an infinite box is in the first excited state (n=2). Obtain the expectation value 1/2<xp+px>


2. The attempt at a solution

Honestly, I don't even know where to begin.
I assumed V<0, V>L is V=∞ and 0<V<L is V=0

I tried setting up the expectation value formula

1/2∫x|ψ*Pψ|2+(x|ψ2)*P x|ψ|2

but what is ψ? is it √(2/L) Sin ((n2πx)/L) because its the solution to the infinite well? are the bounds from 0 to L?

Thanks for viewing my question!
 
Last edited:
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\psi is the wave function for the given problem, that you find by solving Schrödinger equation for a given potential
 
Fakestreet123 said:

Homework Statement


A particle in an infinite box is in the first excited state (n=2). Obtain the expectation value 1/2<xp+px>


2. The attempt at a solution

Honestly, I don't even know where to begin.
I assumed V<0, V>L is V=∞ and 0<V<L is V=0
You mean V=∞ when x<0 or x>L.

I tried setting up the expectation value formula

1/2∫x|ψ*Pψ|2+(x|ψ2)*P x|ψ|2
How did you get this?

but what is ψ? is it √(2/L) Sin ((n2πx)/L) because its the solution to the infinite well? are the bounds from 0 to L?
You do use a solution for the infinite square well, but the function you wrote isn't quite correct.
 
Thanks for responding guys! I very much appreciate it!

vela said:
You mean V=∞ when x<0 or
x
>L.

Ahh yes, sorry for the crappy notation


How did you get this?

Uhhh Now that I've done some more studying I can see that its wrong but I was, at the time, hoping that the expectation values would be ∫<xp>+<px> = ∫<xp+px> and the expectation values of xp, px will just add together like magic.

Which is wrong! So I've redone the problem in an attempt to simply find the operator first

<xp> = -ihx(dψ/dx) and
<px> = -ih (d(xψ)/dx)
1/2<xp+px> = (-ih)/2 (x(dψ/dx)+(d(xψ)/dx)

Now the expectation value should be <1/2(xp+px)>= ∫ψ*(1/2)<xp+px>ψ dx?

do I just plug in 1/2<xp+px> (assuming its correct) and plug in ψ (the solution to the infinite square well) and take the integral from 0 to L?

You do use a solution for the infinite square well, but the function you wrote isn't quite correct.

Sorry! I was very wrong haha
√(2/L) Sin ((nπx)/L)
 
One thing that might help you:

Using [x,p] = ihbar, or xp - px = ihbar, or px = -ihbar + xp, you can write

xp + px = xp + xp - ihbar = 2xp - ihbar, which has an easier to calculate expectation value. (you should check my work, I may have made a mistake)

In general an expectation value is:

<Q> = ∫ψ*Qψdx, where Q on the right is the operator for the observable you want to calculate. ψ is the wavefunction of the particle, which should be supplied by your textbook (it looks like you have the right one though).

Removed by moderator[/color]

Where I used the normalization condition ∫ψ*ψdx = 1.

I'll leave it to you do actually do the integral, and to check my work.
 
Last edited by a moderator:

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