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How can I show that:
\sum^{\infty}_{n=0} \frac{(-i)^n}{n!} \int^{t}_{t'} dt_{1} dt_{2}...dt_{n} T(H_I(t_1)...H_I(t_n)) \equiv Texp[-i\int^{t}_{t'} dsH_I(s)]
My concern is that the integral
\int^{t}_{t'} dt_{1} dt_{2}...dt_{n} T(H_I(t_1)...H_I(t_n))
is not raised to the power of 'n' so we can't really manipulate the expression on the LHS to fit:
exp(x)=\sum^{n=0}_{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n!}.
Also, why can you write a product of Hamiltonians as a single one - physically that makes no sense (to me anyway, a big qualification there!) ie why is HI(t1)HI(t2)...HI(tn)=HI(s)?
Thanks in advance...
\sum^{\infty}_{n=0} \frac{(-i)^n}{n!} \int^{t}_{t'} dt_{1} dt_{2}...dt_{n} T(H_I(t_1)...H_I(t_n)) \equiv Texp[-i\int^{t}_{t'} dsH_I(s)]
My concern is that the integral
\int^{t}_{t'} dt_{1} dt_{2}...dt_{n} T(H_I(t_1)...H_I(t_n))
is not raised to the power of 'n' so we can't really manipulate the expression on the LHS to fit:
exp(x)=\sum^{n=0}_{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n!}.
Also, why can you write a product of Hamiltonians as a single one - physically that makes no sense (to me anyway, a big qualification there!) ie why is HI(t1)HI(t2)...HI(tn)=HI(s)?
Thanks in advance...