Integral of 1/(1+e^x): Find Solution from 2 to Infinity

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding the integral of the function 1/(1+e^x) from 2 to infinity. Participants are exploring the behavior of the integral as the upper limit approaches infinity and discussing the implications of this limit on the convergence of the integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the limit of the integral as t approaches infinity and express confusion about the resulting form. There are mentions of using L'Hôpital's rule to evaluate limits and suggestions to manipulate logarithmic expressions for simplification.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing different perspectives on how to approach the limit and the integral. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of logarithmic properties and the conditions under which the integral converges.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on the behavior of the function as x approaches infinity, particularly whether it diminishes quickly enough for the integral to yield a finite result. Participants are also questioning the validity of their approaches and assumptions regarding the limit evaluation.

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Homework Statement


find the integral from (2 to infinity) of 1/(1+e^x)


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



lim(t-->infinity) integral from (2 to t) of 1/(1+e^x)
1/1+e^x = (1+e^x-e^x)/(1+e^x)
= 1-e^x(1+e6x)

when you solve the integral:
x-ln(1+e^x) between 2 and t
t-ln(1+e^t)-(2-ln(1+e^2))

here we're confused, because when you plug in t=infinity, you end up with a limit that doesn't exist... help?
 
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Well, first, of course, you don't find a limit by "pluggin in t= infinity". This of the form "infinity- infinity" so you should be able to use L'Hopital's rule.
 
HallsofIvy said:
Well, first, of course, you don't find a limit by "pluggin in t= infinity". This of the form "infinity- infinity" so you should be able to use L'Hopital's rule.

then i should hve 1-(e^x)/(1+e^x)?
and use l'hospital's rule again and have
-(e^x)/(e^x)
=-1?
 
You are confronted at this point with the limit

\lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} t - \ln | 1 + e^{t} | - 2 + \ln | 1 + e^{2} |

Plainly, that t - 2 is going to be a problem (and pulling the logarithms into a single term isn't much better). Try writing the other two terms as logarithms, e.g. , t \rightarrow \ln(e^{t}) , and write the entire limit expression as a single logarithm. With a little manipulation of the ratio in the argument of the logarithm, you'll find you won't even need l'Hopital...
 
Last edited:
In order to get a finite result for int_{x=2..infinity} f(x) dx (f(x) > 0 for all x >= 2) we need f(x) to go to zero quickly enough as x --> infinity. Does this happen for your f(x)?

RGV
 
Shannabel said:
then i should hve 1-(e^x)/(1+e^x)?
and use l'hospital's rule again and have
-(e^x)/(e^x)
=-1?
No. You need a quotient to apply the Hospital rule, so you'd need to rearrange your expression first.

I think the most straightforward way to evaluate the limit is to use
t-\log(1+e^t) = t-\log[e^t(1+e^{-t})]
Use the properties of log to simplify your expression and then let t go to infinity.
 

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