Is a Distribution Function a Ratio of Differentials?

Click For Summary
The discussion explores the relationship between distribution functions and ratios of differentials, particularly in the context of wavefunction representation in k-space and the Planck distribution. It highlights that the squared-amplitude can be expressed as a ratio of differentials, leading to the conclusion that the squared amplitudes in momentum and wavevector spaces are related by a factor of 1/ħ. The conversation also touches on the transformation of the Planck distribution from frequency to wavelength, confirming that this transformation adheres to the principles of distribution functions as ratios of derivatives. A clarification is made regarding the notation of ħ, correcting an earlier misstatement about its representation. Overall, the thread emphasizes the mathematical relationships inherent in quantum mechanics and distribution functions.
flyusx
Messages
63
Reaction score
10
Homework Statement
Show that ##\vert\tilde{\phi}\vert^{2}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\hbar}}\vert\phi\vert^{2}## where ##\tilde{\phi}## is a momentum-basis and ##\phi## is a k-space-basis wave packet.
Relevant Equations
##p=k\hbar##
I read on a post here titled 'Understanding Fourier Transform for Wavefunction Representation in K Space' that if one represents the squared-amplitude as a ratio of differentials, the solution is given. Letting the squared-amplitude be ##\phi##.
$$\frac{d\phi}{dp}=\frac{d\phi}{dk}\frac{dk}{dp}$$
Where $$\frac{dk}{dp}=\frac{1}{\hbar}$$
And therefore
$$\vert\tilde{\phi}\vert^{2}=\frac{1}{\hbar}\vert\phi\vert^{2}$$

Additionally, when I represent the Planck distribution with respect to frequency as ##\frac{du}{df}## and multiply by ##\left\vert\frac{df}{d\lambda}\right\vert##, I get the correct expression for the Planck distribution with respect to wavelength. Is this just distribution functions being represented as a ratio of derivatives?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I would say, more simply, that the relation follows because ##p=\hbar k## and ##\int \vert\tilde{\phi}\vert^{2}dp## is a dimensionless probability and so is ##\int \vert\phi\vert^{2} dk##.
 
For OP: In statement of problem, why is it ##\sqrt(\hbar) ## and not just ##\hbar##????
 
My apologies. Yes, it is ##\hbar## that shouldn't be squared.
 
shouldn't be square-rooted.
 
At first, I derived that: $$\nabla \frac 1{\mu}=-\frac 1{{\mu}^3}\left((1-\beta^2)+\frac{\dot{\vec\beta}\cdot\vec R}c\right)\vec R$$ (dot means differentiation with respect to ##t'##). I assume this result is true because it gives valid result for magnetic field. To find electric field one should also derive partial derivative of ##\vec A## with respect to ##t##. I've used chain rule, substituted ##\vec A## and used derivative of product formula. $$\frac {\partial \vec A}{\partial t}=\frac...