Is Reversibility Real or Just a Mathematical Concept?

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In summary, the conversation discusses the concept of reversible processes and whether or not they exist in the real world. The participants mention examples such as the conversion of light into electricity and the pH buffer reaction as potential instances of reversible processes. It is also mentioned that most equilibrium processes are dynamic and therefore reversible, but it may not be possible for a process to have a change in entropy of zero. The conversation also touches on the idea of time symmetry and the heat death of the universe. Ultimately, the question remains open and there is no clear answer as to whether or not reversible processes truly exist in the real world.
  • #1
Jimster41
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is there any real instance of a reversible process or are such operations only possible mathematically, only in the abstract?

I know this might seem like a dumb question, but I am confused by it.
 
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  • #2
Do you mean in the thermodynamic sense or merely in the mechanical (or quantum mechanical) sense?
 
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  • #3
Sure, you could convert light into electricity with a photovoltiac and use the electricity to produce light with an LED, (for example).
 
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  • #4
I like that example.

So I can imagine the photons after are indistinguishable from those before but the act of an observer observing is a history that can't be backed up? This is my confusion. How can there be an experimental measurement that is not a history? And if none exist, what history can be reversed? If none of those exist, what experiment can prove reversibility is real?
 
  • #5
The light-photovoltaic cell-led is strongly irreversible. Reversible processes are easy to compute (sometimes) but irreversibility rules in the real world.
 
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  • #6
Jimster41 said:
... the act of an observer observing is a history that can't be backed up?
I think you'll need to define the boundaries of the "system". If you're including an observer in the system, does that mean a reversal requires his memories to be erased?
 
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  • #7
Yeah, I got confused while following a thread on QM. Surely if an event (to be an event) must be observed by something capable of cataloging events as memories, comparing them, in other words conscious experimenters - the only experimenters we can be, then the problem seems sharp. I think it can be said that no one has seen a thing from the past? No past events have (re)occurred

The non-conscious observer seems interesting and problematic too, but I was thinking, one thing at a time.
 
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  • #8
Dr. Courtney said:
Do you mean in the thermodynamic sense or merely in the mechanical (or quantum mechanical) sense?

I didn't see this post. I am trying to understand how they relate, especially thermodynamics and QM.
 
  • #9
Jimster41 said:
is there any real instance of a reversible process or are such operations only possible mathematically, only in the abstract?
As usual, it all seems a bit complicated... :oldgrumpy:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irreversible_process

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reversible_process_(thermodynamics)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reversibility

is there any real instance of a reversible process
To me, anyway, a completely reversible process would seem to imply... the capability of perpetual motion to exist ?
 
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  • #10
Gordianus said:
The light-photovoltaic cell-led is strongly irreversible. Reversible processes are easy to compute (sometimes) but irreversibility rules in the real world.
Yes, it would seem so...
 
  • #11
I had always just seen that "infinitesimal" series of changes required for the imagination of reversibility, which only exists in our imaginations, as a calculus technique now it seems clearly related to the classical-quantum boundary, and the measurement problem.

So is the Second Law of Thermo a direct result of QM indeterminacy?

I guess that's more a question for the QM forum...
 
  • #12
Jimster41 said:
is there any real instance of a reversible process or are such operations only possible mathematically, only in the abstract?

I know this might seem like a dumb question, but I am confused by it.

A very good dumb question. If we are to presume time (modulo CP) symmetry and forget about classical thermodynamic, every process is a real example of its reverse. But, this is just word play, taking you verbatim.

I don't think anyone can provide a single example.
 
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  • #13
rootone said:
Sure, you could convert light into electricity with a photovoltiac and use the electricity to produce light with an LED, (for example).

OK. see if you can put light into a LED and get light out of your photovoltaic cell.
 
  • #14
I had misunderstood the question, and I apologise for that.
Of course I don't think that a photovoltiac is a LED running backwards.
Neither do I believe that a perpetual motion machine is possible.

I was saying simply that transformation of energy from one type to another type usually can be done in either direction.
I did not mean to imply that the PV -> LED system could work in a 100% efficient lossless manner so that all of the input energy is recoverable. nor that the system would work in reverse.
 
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  • #15
rootone said:
I had misunderstood the question, and I apologise for that.
Of course I don't think that a photovoltiac is a LED running backwards.

My apoligies for being too harsh.
 
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  • #16
I would say that a pH buffer reaction is reversible. So are many other chemical reactions. They can proceed in either direction.

Most equilibrium processes are dynamic, so they would be reversible too.

A lot of nuclear reactions are reversible although they are more likely to go one way than the other.
 
  • #17
DaleSpam said:
I would say that a pH buffer reaction is reversible. So are many other chemical reactions. They can proceed in either direction.

Most equilibrium processes are dynamic, so they would be reversible too.

What's a pH buffer reaction?

DaleSpam said:
A lot of nuclear reactions are reversible although they are more likely to go one way than the other.

In the accepted laws of physics, everything is T (modulo CP) symmetric, if unitarity is obeyed and the Born rule is either ignored or taken as subjective, though black holes seem to be an annoying exception, violating unitarity.

However, this not is what the OP, Jimster, is asking. If I could more formally rephrase:

"Are there any real world example of processes, taking one state to another, where the change in entropy is zero, ##\Delta S=0## ?"​

I think this about captures it. If not, I would hope Jimster would correct me.

All it takes is one example where ##\Delta S=0##.

It may not be as easy as it looks. Take some system in equilibrium and stimulate it to change state without the stimulus adding or subtracting entropy to the system. It sounds, to me, totologically inconsistent if we identify positive entropy with information lost.
 
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  • #18
I'm not a mathematician but I think this means, can there be a process where nothing can change, ever?
My guess is no, everything changes, that is what is observed.

Well there is the issue of the heat death of our observable universe.
Quoting somebody 'Death is one of those things, I just don't to be there when it happens'.
 
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  • #20
DaleSpam said:

I know what a buffering agent is, I just don't know what you mean by a pH buffer reaction. But this may be moot.

I spent so much time thinking and rethinking my last post, it's significantly different than what you probably read. How might you consider my tenative reformulatioin of Jimster's post? Please feel free to take some time.
 
  • #21
stedwards said:
I just don't know what you mean by a pH buffer reaction.
I mean the chemical reaction of the buffer itself. I think it is called deprotonation. It goes both ways quite easily.
 
  • #22
Jimster41 said:
any real instance of a reversible process
"State A" at equilibrium, not equal to "State B" moving/proceeding to "State B" at equilibrium, for a real, observed/observable system, and being returned to "State A" without an increase in the entropy of the universe within less than infinite time? No.
 
  • #23
Yeah, the ΔS(system)=0 where system=observer AND observed (is there an experiment that can be defined otherwise?) is the one I can't imagine has ever been seen.

I need to know more about the CPT symmetry. I think that is a key part of the formalism I'm missing.

The Kochen Specker theorem, which as I (recently, barely) understand it asserts that only non-local and or context specific hidden variables can explain QM indeterminacy, is what got me confused or re-confused about this.

Found this paper, which seems relevant. I am still trying to read it.
http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0605031

Irreversibility in Collapse-Free Quantum Dynamics and the Second Law of Thermodynamics
M. B. Weissman
(Submitted on 2 May 2006)
Proposals to solve the problems of quantum measurement via non-linear CPT-violating modifications of quantum dynamics are argued to provide a possible fundamental explanation for the irreversibility of statistical mechanics as well. The argument is expressed in terms of collapse-free accounts. The reverse picture, in which statistical irreversibility generates quantum irreversibility, is argued to be less satisfactory because it leaves the Born probability rule unexplained.
Comments: 13 pages
Subjects: Quantum Physics (quant-ph)
Cite as: arXiv:quant-ph/0605031
(or arXiv:quant-ph/0605031v1 for this version)
 
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  • #24
I disagree with the idea that nothing is reversible. I think that you may be using the word reversible to mean backwards time travel. Can you please clarify what you mean by reversible that makes you think that it is impossible.
 
  • #25
I would certainly be interested in discussing the paper below (see pg2) or the one in post #23, or whether I am misinterpreting the Kocker Specken (entirely likely). They represent my question, understanding and confusion better than I can possibly summarize.

But if that means this is considered an inappropriate thread, I understand.

http://arxiv.org/abs/1506.03733
A naturalist account of the limited, and hence reasonable, effectiveness of mathematics in physics
Authors:https://www.physicsforums.com/find/physics/1/au:+Smolin_L/0/1/0/all/0/1
(Submitted on 11 Jun 2015)
Abstract: The aim of this essay is to propose a conception of mathematics that is fully consonant with naturalism. By that I mean the hypothesis that everything that exists is part of the natural world, which makes up a unitary whole.
Comments: 10 pages latex, no figures. Awarded third place in the 2015 FQXi essay contest
Subjects: History and Philosophy of Physics (physics.hist-ph)
Cite as: https://www.physicsforums.com/abs/1506.03733 [physics.hist-ph]
(or https://www.physicsforums.com/abs/1506.03733v1 [physics.hist-ph] for this version)
 
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  • #26
The Smolin paper is pure philosophy and wouldn't be on topic anywhere on PF, but the Weissman paper would probably be relevant for the QM forum.
 
  • #27
DaleSpam said:
The Smolin paper is pure philosophy and wouldn't be on topic anywhere on PF, but the Weissman paper would probably be relevant for the QM forum.

I posted the Weissman paper over there, I reposted it here later.
 
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  • #28
Jimster41 said:
I think it can be said that no one has seen a thing from the past?
Everything you see [detect] is from the past since the speed of light is finite.
Jimster41 said:
is there any real instance of a reversible process or are such operations only possible mathematically, only in the abstract?

In addtion to OCR's sources, already posted, try this non intuitive piece too:

If you talk about manipulating 'information' (bits) in a computer: Only erasure costs energy...that means it increases entropy...so when entropy increases information decreases. This is called Landauer's Principle.
Otherwise extracting information causes some measure of heat loss.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Landauer_Principle

"If no information is erased, computation may in principle be achieved which is thermodynamically reversible, and require no release of heat. This has led to considerable interest in the study of reversible computing."
 
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  • #29
Finny said:
Everything you see [detect] is from the past since the speed of light is finite.

Unfortunately, so is me, and I can't slow down...

I can see how how all events in the present are derived from other presents, in my past or some others, but to say an event in the present is in all ways the same as an event from the past would, at the bottom, require for the present to be the past, for at least one "measurement". I don't see how that could be defined without contradiction. But I will look at the links. Thanks.
 
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  • #30
The Landauer Principle makes sense to me except for the idea of non-information carrying degrees of freedom in which the entropy increase can be assigned, which sounds exactly like the classical trick of defining an isolating boundary inside of which something un-natural can be imagined.
 
  • #31
I really haven't got a clue what you guys are talking about but if its what i think it is what about touching refrigerated pure water with a ice cube with the exact same temperature as the water no heat transfer would have to occur and it would instantly change from water to ice. It changes and no entropy as it didn't change temperature just changed from water to ice. Something like that ?? I'm going to guess no lol.
 
  • #32
Finny said:
Everything you see [detect] is from the past since the speed of light is finite.
That's the way I see it... :oldwink:
 
  • #33
OCR said:
That's the way I see it... :oldwink:

@Finny @OCR i think I might have missed something, what are OCR's sources?
 
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  • #34
Gaz said:
I really haven't got a clue what you guys are talking about but if its what i think it is what about touching refrigerated pure water with a ice cube with the exact same temperature as the water no heat transfer would have to occur and it would instantly change from water to ice. It changes and no entropy as it didn't change temperature just changed from water to ice. Something like that ?? I'm going to guess no lol.
I think that is the very idea of latent heat of phase change. I am more used the the vaporization case. But I still have to look it up, always. o_O
Before doing that, my quiz answer is...

Depending on the temperature difference between the water and ice, which can't be zero: Either the ice would begin to melt and the environment would cool as it supplied energy to that process equivalent to the energy stored in the information structuring the ice that melted. Or the water would begin spontaneously to freeze releasing the amount of energy needed to keep the liquid from becoming a crystal.

I'm sure that is at least partly wrong.
 
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  • #35
Gaz said:
ice cube with the exact same temperature as the water no heat transfer would have to occur and it would instantly change from water to ice.
"WORNG!" (sic)
 

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