I Is π^x - x^π < 0 Solvable by Graphing Techniques?

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Guys, could you help me how to solve the inequality π^x - x^π < 0??
 
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The easiest way to solve this is to use the desmos graphing calculator site:

https://www.desmos.com/calculator

and type in: pi^x - x^pi

It will show you a plot of the curve from which you can see where the zeros are and where the <0 segment is.
 
but if we're not allowed to use any calculator?? because my school doesn't allow us to use calculator for most of my math lesson
 
Okay, but since you've posted it, you could look at the graph and then see if you can devise a strategy to solve it.

One obvious solution is: ##\pi^\pi - \pi^\pi## which is one of its zeros.

Next, what math course is this for?

Can you use an approximation strategy like evaluating a few terms in its Taylor series?

Also you can try x=0, x=1... and attempt to plot it.
 
yeah, at first i think the solution is x<π. But when i look at the graph, there are another solution that make the inequalities become smaller than zero. Anyway i got this question from my math textbook where i study by myself. and yes i can use a bit of approximation of taylor series
 
bryan goh said:
Anyway i got this question from my math textbook where i study by myself.
Please post textbook problems in the Homework & Coursework sections, not here in the technical math sections.
 
Function ##f(x)=π^x - x^π## is continuous. Find values of x when f(x)=0 aka ##π^x - x^π=0##. Ranges where f(x)<0 aka ##π^x - x^π<0## must be between those x values, in range between -∞ and smallest such x value or in range between biggest such x value and ∞.
 
This is a standard Calculus 1 homework problem
 
lavinia said:
This is a standard Calculus 1 homework problem
Really? I haven't heard of Lambert W function until well out of university. But then it wasn't a mathematical university.
 
  • #10
SlowThinker said:
Really? I haven't heard of Lambert W function until well out of university. But then it wasn't a mathematical university.
I never heard of the Lambert W function.
 
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  • #11
lavinia said:
I never heard of the Lambert W function.
Wolframalpha gives the solution in terms of the LambertW function. Is there an easier expression for the 2.3821790879930187746?
 
  • #12
SlowThinker said:
Wolframalpha gives the solution in terms of the LambertW function. Is there an easier expression for the 2.3821790879930187746?

I don't know what this link tells you.

I think you want to solve ##log(x)/x > log(π)/π## since

##π^{x} - x^{π} <0 ⇒ e^{xlog(π)} < e^{πlog(x)} ⇒ xlog{π} < πlog{x}##
 
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  • #13
lavinia said:
I think you want to solve ##log(x)/x > log(π)/π##
So how do you solve that using Calculus 1 knowledge?
 
  • #14
SlowThinker said:
So how do you solve that using Calculus 1 knowledge?
Start with observing that \frac{\log(\pi)}{\pi} is a constant.
 
  • #15
Svein said:
Start with observing that \frac{\log(\pi)}{\pi} is a constant.
And continue how? Remember this is not a proof of existence, we're looking for the value of x where ##\log x/x=\log\pi/\pi##.
 
  • #16
log pi/pi is constan right?
 
  • #17
bryan goh said:
yeah, at first i think the solution is x<π. But when i look at the graph, there are another solution that make the inequalities become smaller than zero. Anyway i got this question from my math textbook where i study by myself. and yes i can use a bit of approximation of taylor series
If you can approximate this and this is question is from a calculus book, then this sounds like a problem were you should use Newton's method for finding the roots of a function.
 
  • #18
but what [x][0] must we take
 
  • #19
x0 i mean
 
  • #20
bryan goh said:
but what [x][0] must we take
You make a guess of ##x_{0}## which you think is close to the solution. We know ##\pi## is one solution of ##\pi^{x}-x^{\pi}=0## so let's see if there is another solution smaller than ##\pi##. Try using ##x_{0}=0## for simplicity and you should get the other solution.

Edit: Sorry, looking at the graph you should probably pick ##x_{0}=2##. The problem with Newton's method is that if you pick a value of ##x_{0}## and there is a hill or valley between that ##x_{0}## and the solution, the method does not converge.
 
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  • #21
Can't we simply plot f(x)=log(x)/x,we know x>0...apply limits to find value of f(x) at 0,1 and infinity
It's clear that the derivative of the function will be positive till e and negative after that(indicating e is a point of maxima).
That's your graph done.
log(pi)/pi will be a straight line cutting the function at x=pi and some other point(we'll need a calculator to find that,i guess)

Your answer's that point till pi
 

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