Is that correct so far ... ?Yes, that is correct. Good job!

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on Exercise 26 from Chapter 15 of "Abstract Algebra" by David S. Dummit and Richard M. Foote, specifically regarding Noetherian Rings and Affine Algebraic Sets. The user, Peter, seeks clarification on demonstrating that a morphism $$\phi: \mathbb{A}^1 \rightarrow V$$ is indeed a polynomial map between algebraic sets. The conversation confirms that the polynomials $$\phi_1(a) = a^3$$, $$\phi_2(a) = a^4$$, and $$\phi_3(a) = a^5$$ satisfy the requirements for $$\phi$$. Additionally, the discussion provides a method to show the surjectivity of $$\phi$$ by analyzing the zero set of the equations involved.

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I am trying to gain an understanding of the basics of elementary algebraic geometry and am reading Dummit and Foote Chapter 15: Commutative Rings and Algebraic Geometry ...

At present I am focused on Section 15.1 Noetherian Rings and Affine Algebraic Sets ... ...

I need help to get started on Exercise 26 of Section 15.1 ...Exercise 26 of Section 15.1 reads as follows:
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/4764Help with this exercise will be much appreciated ...

Peter
***EDIT***

Thoughts so far are as follows:

... ...

I am assuming that when Dummit and Foote ask us to show that $$\phi$$ is a morphism that, given the context, they are referring to what they have defined as a morphism or polynomial map between two algebraic sets ... in which case we would have to be sure we were actually dealing with a map between algebraic sets ... now $$V$$ is obviously by its definition, an algebraic set ... but ... how do we show that $$\mathbb{A}^1$$ is an algebraic set ... ?If, however we assume that both $$V$$ and $$\mathbb{A}^1$$ are indeed algebraic sets then we have to show that:

$$\phi \ : \ \mathbb{A}^1 \rightarrow V$$

is a morphism or polynomial map of algebraic sets ... that is we have to show that there exists polynomials $$\phi_1, \phi_2, \phi_3$$ such that:

$$\phi(a) = ( \phi_1 (a) , \phi_2 (a) , \phi_3 (a) )$$

But, this is obviously true with

$$\phi_1 (a) = a^3 \ , \ \phi_2 (a) = a^4 \ , \ \phi_3 (a) = a^5$$ ...

Is that correct so far ... ?

But... not sure of how to show the surjectivity ... even with the hint ...

Further ... I need help to make a significant start on parts (b) and (c) ...Hope someone can help ... particularly with parts (b) and (c) ...

Peter
 
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Let's go one step at a time.

Suppose $(0,y,z)$ is in the zero set.

Then $xz - y^2 = 0 \implies y^2 = 0 \implies y = 0$.

Similarly, $z^2 - x^2y = 0 \implies z^2 = 0 \implies z = 0$.

Thus either ALL of $x,y,z$ are $0$, or $x \neq 0$.

Now it is clear that $(x,y,z) = (t^3,t^4,t^5)$ is in the zero set, for any $t \in k$:

$xz - y^2 = t^3t^5 - (t^4)^2 = t^8 - t^8 = 0$
$yz - x^3 = t^4t^5 - (t^3)^3 = t^9 - t^9 = 0$
$z^2 - x^3y = (t^5)^2 - (t^3)^2t^4 = t^{10} - t^6t^4 = t^{10} - t^{10} = 0$.

So we see that $\{(t^3,t^4,t^5): t\in k\} \subseteq \mathcal{Z}$. The question becomes: is EVERY element of the zero set of that form?

Now if $(x,y,z) \neq 0$, we see that $x \neq 0$. Thus $x$ is a unit of $k$. Hence $y = ax$ for some $a \in k$ (namely $a = \dfrac{y}{x}$).

Then:

$xz - y^2 = 0 \iff xz - a^2x^2 = 0 \iff x(z - a^2x) = 0 \implies z - a^2x = 0$ (since $x \neq 0$).

So $(x,y,z) = (x,ax,a^2x)$.

Consequently, re-writing $yz - x^3 = 0$:

$ax(a^2x) - x^3 = 0 \implies a^3x^2 - x^3 = 0 \implies x^2(a^3 - x) = 0 \implies a^3 = x$

so $(x,y,z) = (a^3,a^4,a^5)$, or if you prefer: $(x,y,z)\neq 0 \in \mathcal{Z} \implies (x,y,z) = \left(\dfrac{x^3}{y^3},\dfrac{x^4}{y^4},\dfrac{x^5}{y^5}\right)$

Now the zero set point $(0,0,0)$ is clearly of the form: $(0^3,0^4,0^5)$, so this shows the zero set is contained in the image of $\phi$, so $\phi$ is surjective.
 

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