Is the Law of Areas Still Applicable with a Changed Law of Gravitation?

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The discussion centers on the applicability of the Law of Areas in the context of a modified Law of Gravitation. It is argued that the Law of Areas, which is derived from the conservation of angular momentum, should still hold true even if gravitational forces change, as long as the force remains central. However, the Law of Period will be affected due to changes in distance dependency. Additionally, potential energy can still be defined under a different gravitational law, such as an inverse cubic relation, and conservation of energy remains valid if the force is conservative. Overall, the conversation emphasizes the relationship between force, potential energy, and conservation principles in varying gravitational contexts.
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I think if the law of gravitation changes then the law of areas should still hold .Law of areas is nothing but law of conservation of angular momentum . Since the changed law of gravitation is still central the law of areas should still hold true .

But the law of period will change as the dependency on the distance changes .

So option 1) is right .

Is that correct ?
 

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I only looked at it somewhat quickly, but I believe it is correct. The law of areas is derived from conservation of angular momentum. Writing a circular orbit with ##\frac{AMm}{r^3}=\frac{mv^2}{r} ## with ## v=\frac{2 \pi r}{T} ## would give you ## \frac{r^4}{T^2}=constant ##.## \\ ## An additional google of the topic seems to suggest that ## n=3 ## would normally result in an unstable orbit. Further study is needed... See https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/74okkx/what_would_orbital_mechanics_be_like_if_gravity/ ## \\ ## I think in any case (1) may still be correct.
 
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Thank you .

Is potential energy defined in the changed law just like the way it is defined usually (-GMm/r) ?

I mean , does potential energy exist if the force has an inverse cubic relation ?
 
Jahnavi said:
Thank you .

Is potential energy defined in the changed law just like the way it is defined usually (-GMm/r) ?

I mean , is potential energy defined if the force has an inverse cubic relation ?
It would be ## U(r)= -\int\limits_{r}^{+\infty} \frac{AMm}{r^3} \, dr=-\frac{AMm}{2 r^2} ##
 
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OK . So potential energy has nothing to do with inverse square law . Right ?
 
Jahnavi said:
OK . So potential energy has nothing to do with inverse square law . Right ?
It could still be a conservative force, where ## \vec{F}=-\nabla U ##. That does not require ## \vec{F} ## to be inverse square. Inverse cube works ok for that as well, i.e. the function ## U ## that is computed above will act as required for potential energy. The important thing here that it is a "conservative" potential in that the sum of the kinetic and potential energy is conserved.
 
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OK .

Suppose instead of force having inverse square/cube dependancy , potential energy is U = -K1r3 and the attractive central force is F = K2r2 , is the potential energy defined and does conservation of energy still hold true ?

Sorry , if my questions look irrelevant but we do get such type of questions as is evident from the OP . I am just trying to understand this better .
 
If ## 3 K_1=K_2 ##, I believe that would work. (And it's a good question).:smile: ## \\ ##Edit: But in that case, one correction: ## U=+K_1 r^3 ##. (Just like for a spring: ## U=+\frac{1}{2} k r^2 ##, with a "+" sign, when the attractive force is ## F=kr ##.).
 
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Does conservation of energy also hold for the case in post#7 ?

Does that mean any central force of the form Krn , where n is a non zero integer will be conservative if it satisfies F = -dU/dr ?
 
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Jahnavi said:
Does conservation of energy also hold for the case in post#7 ?

Does that mean any central force of the form Krn , where n is a non zero integer will be conservative if it satisfies F = -dU/dr ?
I believe that is the case. In general, if the force comes from the (minus) gradient of a potential function, it will be conservative.
 
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Thanks !
 
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