TylerH
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I know .999... = 1. I'm just arguing against this method of proof.
A common proof I see that .999 \ldots = 1 is that sup\{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = 1, but this is only true if you assume .999 \ldots \ge 1. If you assume, as most argue, that .999 \ldots < 1, then sup \{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = .999 \ldots < 1. Of course, by assuming .999 \ldots < 1, you get the nonsense expected at the end of a proof by contradiction, but you still have to proof that .999 \ldots < 1 is nonsense by proving .999 \ldots = 1. Therefore, the supremum method is useless.
Is my logic correct?
A common proof I see that .999 \ldots = 1 is that sup\{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = 1, but this is only true if you assume .999 \ldots \ge 1. If you assume, as most argue, that .999 \ldots < 1, then sup \{.9, .99, .999, \ldots \} = .999 \ldots < 1. Of course, by assuming .999 \ldots < 1, you get the nonsense expected at the end of a proof by contradiction, but you still have to proof that .999 \ldots < 1 is nonsense by proving .999 \ldots = 1. Therefore, the supremum method is useless.
Is my logic correct?
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