Is there any symmetry I can use to find this Fourier sine series?

richyw
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Homework Statement



I am going over a practice exam, and I need to find the FSS of f(x)=x(\pi^2-x^2)

Homework Equations


f(x) \sim \sum^\infty_{n=1}a_n sin\left(\frac{n \pi x}{L}\right)
a_n=\frac{2}{L}\int^L_0 f(x)sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)dx

The Attempt at a Solution


I think I need to integrate\frac{2}{\pi}\int^\pi_0 x(\pi^2-x^2)sin(n\pi)dxwhich is two integrals, the first one would need me to use IBP once, and the second one would need me to use IBP three times. This is on a practice exam (and my exam is in an hour), so I am guessing that this integral is easier if I can find some symmetry in it. Is this true?
 
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You can indeed use symmetry. Graph f(x) on your calc: what do you notice? remember if x(t)=x(-t) then there is even symmetry, x(t)=-x(-t) means it has odd symmetry.
 
richyw said:

Homework Statement



I am going over a practice exam, and I need to find the FSS of f(x)=x(\pi^2-x^2)

Homework Equations


f(x) \sim \sum^\infty_{n=1}a_n sin\left(\frac{n \pi x}{L}\right)
a_n=\frac{2}{L}\int^L_0 f(x)sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)dx

The Attempt at a Solution


I think I need to integrate\frac{2}{\pi}\int^\pi_0 x(\pi^2-x^2)sin(n\pi)dxwhich is two integrals, the first one would need me to use IBP once, and the second one would need me to use IBP three times. This is on a practice exam (and my exam is in an hour), so I am guessing that this integral is easier if I can find some symmetry in it. Is this true?

The fact that the function is odd is the reason you can use the half range sine expansion in the first place. That is why there are no cosine terms. You just need to bite the bullet and do the integration by parts. Don't do two separate integrals though. Write your integrand as$$
(\pi^2x-x^3)sin(n\color{red}x)$$and do it all at once. Note your typo correction.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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