Is this an isomorphism between vector spaces

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the mapping L: R^n → R^n>0 defined by L(a1, ..., an) = (e^a1, ..., e^an) is an isomorphism between the vector spaces R^n and R^n>0. Participants agree that the mapping is bijective, as it establishes a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of R^n and R^n>0. However, there is uncertainty regarding the classification of R^n>0 as a vector space in the traditional sense, leading to a debate on the implications of this bijection.

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Homework Statement


a belongs to R
show that the map
L: R^n------R^n>0
(R^n>0 denote the n-fold cartesian product of R>0 with itself)
(a1)
(...) ----------
(an)

(e^a1)
(...)
(e^an)
is a isomorphism between the vector space R^n and the vector space R^n>0

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


no idea about this question
any clue ?
can i say because of bijective
a1=e^a1 ...an=e^an ??
 
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I don't get the question. Yes, it is a bijection. But I wouldn't think of (R>0)^n as a vector space in the usual sense. If there's a bijection between two sets you can always say one is the same as the other just by identifying operations in one with operations in the other. But I doubt that's what the question is.
 

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