In my understanding, omega must be an (n-1)-form on an n-dimensional differential manifold, and so Stokes theorem does not apply to the question involving integrals of a vector and scalar on, say, manifolds of dimension 4. Is this incorrect?
A volume form on an n-dimensional manifold is, by definition, a nonvanishing n form. Thus X\lrcorner\Omega, as the contraction of a vector field with an n form, is an n-1 form.
In other words, having fed it one vector field, it still expects n-1 more.
The exterior derivative takes k forms to k+1 forms, so d(X\lrcorner\Omega) is another n-1+1=n form. The equation
d(X\lrcorner\Omega) = (\mathrm{div}\ X)\Omega
was not an identity, but my (perfectly sensible)
definition of the divergence with respect to this volume form. In other words, since the top exterior power is 1-dimensional, d(X\lrcorner\Omega) must be a scalar multiple of \Omega. I defined the divergence to be this scalar (I didn't write something like \mathrm{div}_\Omega\ X because there was only one volume form in sight).
It's not hard to verify that this agrees with both the classical definition in \mathbb{R}^n, and with the original poster's definition in terms of the metric covariant derivative on a Riemannian manifold.
Perhaps it will clarify things to point out that, in the Riemannian case, if we take \omega to be the induced volume form on the boundary and N to be the outward-pointing unit normal vector field, we also have
<br />
\int_S (\mathrm{div}\ X) \Omega = \int_{\partial S} \langle X, N\rangle \omega.<br />
Cheers,
Jason