Why Does Kinetic Energy Change Near Light Speed?

  • Thread starter Thread starter julianwitkowski
  • Start date Start date
AI Thread Summary
Kinetic energy equations such as KE = ½ m ⋅ v² are only valid at speeds much less than the speed of light (c) due to the effects of relativity. As objects approach light speed, their mass effectively increases, necessitating the use of the Lorentz factor in calculations. The relativistic kinetic energy equation is expressed as KE = (γ - 1)mc², where γ represents the Lorentz factor and m is the rest mass. This reflects the dependence of kinetic energy on the reference frame in both Newtonian and relativistic mechanics. Understanding these changes is essential for accurate calculations in high-speed physics scenarios.
julianwitkowski
Messages
133
Reaction score
0
I'm curious as to the reasons why KE = ½ m ⋅ v2 only works at speeds much less than c?

Also, how does the equation change?

Thank you!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Shyan said:
This thread may help.
Is it because you have to compensate for the increasing mass of the object which is proportional to the Lorentz factor, and then the integrals give you the the accurate change in mass over the entire distance with acceleration/deceleration and other factors compensated for?
 
julianwitkowski said:
Is it because you have to compensate for the increasing mass of the object which is proportional to the Lorentz factor, and then the integrals give you the the accurate change in mass over the entire distance with acceleration/deceleration and other factors compensated for?

I prefer not to use relativistic mass at all and in fact its not needed. Physicists don't use it too. Its just that in both Newtonian and Relativistic mechanics, linear momentum and kinetic energy depend on the reference frame, but with different forms. In relativity we have KE=(\gamma-1)mc^2 and \vec p=\gamma m \vec v. By m, I mean rest mass and this is the only concept of mass I use.
These forms are dictated by consistency with special relativity and actually they can be derived. See e.g. this paper!
 
  • Like
Likes julianwitkowski
Thread 'Is 'Velocity of Transport' a Recognized Term in English Mechanics Literature?'
Here are two fragments from Banach's monograph in Mechanics I have never seen the term <<velocity of transport>> in English texts. Actually I have never seen this term being named somehow in English. This term has a name in Russian books. I looked through the original Banach's text in Polish and there is a Polish name for this term. It is a little bit surprising that the Polish name differs from the Russian one and also differs from this English translation. My question is: Is there...
This has been discussed many times on PF, and will likely come up again, so the video might come handy. Previous threads: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/is-a-treadmill-incline-just-a-marketing-gimmick.937725/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/work-done-running-on-an-inclined-treadmill.927825/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-do-we-calculate-the-energy-we-used-to-do-something.1052162/
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...

Similar threads

Back
Top