Kinematics in Polar Coordinates

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on solving a kinematics problem in polar coordinates, where a particle's velocity is given, and the goal is to find its position vector as a function of time. Participants explore the integration of the velocity expression, noting the challenges posed by changing unit vectors in polar coordinates compared to Cartesian coordinates. They derive a system of differential equations and discuss the possibility of expressing the solution in terms of r(θ). After several iterations and corrections, they arrive at a more reasonable time estimate for the particle's journey to the origin, highlighting the complexity of the problem and the importance of careful calculations. The conversation emphasizes the necessity of numerical integration and the potential for errors in the integration process.
theloathedone
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Homework Statement


A particle starts at (d, 0) in polar coordinates and has a velocity of
\vec{v}=(u \sin{\theta} - v)\hat{r} + u \cos{\theta} \hat{\theta}
where v > u

Find the position vector of the particle as a function of time.


Homework Equations


\vec{v}=\frac{d\vec{r}}{dt}


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not sure how to integrate the expression for v to get the position of a particle. Since the unit vectors are changing, I can't just integrate the components individually like in Cartesian coordinates right?

I also read that \dot{\textbf{r}}=\dot{r}\hat{\textbf{r}}+ r\dot{\theta}\hat{\textbf{\theta}}

But I'm not sure if this helps me.

Thanks in advance for the help :)

P.S. How do I bold the letters? I used \textbf but it doesn't seem to have an effect.
 
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The vector equations are equivalent to a system of scalar differential equations:

dr/dt=u sin(θ)-v; r dθ/dt = u cos (θ).

Are u and v constant parameters?

ehild
 
Yup u and v are constant.

Is this set of DE solvable?

Edit: After looking at another problem from this forum, I think it would be possible to express it in terms of dr/dθ.

\frac{dr}{d\theta} = \frac{dr}{dt} \frac{1}{\frac{d\theta}{dt}} = ur \tan{\theta} - \frac{vr}{u\cos{\theta}}

And this gives a closed form solution for r(θ). But will I be able to get the position as a function of time for that?
 
Last edited:
theloathedone said:
\frac{dr}{d\theta} = \frac{dr}{dt} \frac{1}{\frac{d\theta}{dt}} = ur \tan{\theta} - \frac{vr}{u\cos{\theta}}

And this gives a closed form solution for r(θ). But will I be able to get the position as a function of time for that?

Correctly, it is dr/dθ =r tan(θ)-(r v)/(u cos (θ)).
Yes, this has a solution in closed form (I am still struggling with it) and in principle, you should get both r and θ as functions of time from it: if r(θ) is known, dθ/dt=u cos(θ)/r(θ), which is a separable differential equation, and once θ(t) is known you get r(t) by integrating u sin(θ(t))-v.
But it is just ugly...

ehild
 
Yeah it is ugly, but I'm allowed to use numerical integration.
Oh yeah I made a mistake in the signs, all of them should have been negative in the original expression for the velocity.

So after integrating, I got r(θ) = K cos(θ)|sec(θ)+tan(θ)|^(v/u)

The particle starts at (d, 0), and I just let d = 100 m, v = 7 m/s, u = 5 m/s (random parameters from the original problem statement). It starts off headed southwest, taking a long arc that looks vaguely semielliptical before reaching the origin.

I want to find the time taken to reach the origin. Do I integrate dθ from 2Pi to 3Pi/2? Since the particle's initial position is at (d, 2Pi) and just before touching the origin, since it is coming northward from the bottom, it will be at (almost 0, 3Pi/2). Is this reasoning correct?

Thanks for the help so far :)
 
Ok I tried using Wolfram Alpha to do the numerical integration.

\frac{d\theta}{dt}=\frac{u \cos{\theta}}{r(\theta)} = \frac{u}{K}|\sec{\theta}+tan{\theta}|^{-\frac{v}{u}}

So can I just separate the variables and get dθ|sec(θ)+tan(θ)^(v/u) = u/K dt?

When I used Wolfram Alpha to perform the numerical integration, I get t = 5.58. But this is clearly unreasonable. The maximum speed the particle takes is when sin(theta) = 0 (because it is negative within 3pi/2 to 2pi) and is only √(u^2 + v^2) = 8.60 m/s. To travel the 100m to the origin in a straight line path at that speed would take 11 seconds, so the answer is clearly wrong.

Is there a fundamental flaw in my reasoning somewhere?

Thanks :)
 
convert to cartesian usin
r=cos8i+sin8j
8=sin8i-cos8j
integrate seperatly to get x and y coordinates
 
theloathedone said:
Is there a fundamental flaw in my reasoning somewhere?
I got an other solution for r(θ) than yours: integral(tan(θ)dθ) is - ln(cos(θ)), so cos(θ) is in the denominator. Check it!

ehild
 
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Lostinthought said:
convert to cartesian usin
r=cos8i+sin8j
8=sin8i-cos8j
integrate seperatly to get x and y coordinates

What do you mean with those 8-s?

I tried, it is not easier in x,y coordinates.


ehild
 
  • #10
i ment <br /> \theta<br />
 
  • #11
Thanks ehild for pointing out my mistake :)

I seem to be making a lot of careless mistakes on this problem.

So after correcting that cos in the denominator, I managed to get answers that sound reasonable, like 30 seconds. I think it should be right now.

Thanks for all the help! Really appreciate your taking time to do the integral etc. and show me where I went wrong :)
 
  • #12
The pleasure was mine :smile: Really, it was a challenging problem.

ehild
 
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