Kinetic energy, movement <-> energy ?

AI Thread Summary
Kinetic energy is defined as the energy an object possesses due to its motion. When a person kicks a ball, they exert a force over a distance, transferring energy to the ball, which then moves. This process illustrates that energy is imparted to the ball through the action of kicking, resulting in the ball gaining kinetic energy. The confusion arises from the phrasing in the book, which suggests that movement itself provides energy, but in reality, it is the force applied that converts potential energy into kinetic energy, enabling the ball to move.
miibay
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
Hi there,

I always thought that kinetic energy was the energy associated to a movement, ie, I have a ball in movement so I had printed the energy of my body on it when I kicked the ball, right? So I gave energy to the ball that started to move it. energy -> movement.
However, I was reading the book 'Principles of Chemistry' and in its definition of Kinetic energy they have 'energy given to a body by its movement', which according to my understanding means that I gave the energy to the ball when I kicked it and then the ball started to move, so movement -> energy.

Please help me! I'm so confused!

Thank you all in advance :)
 
Chemistry news on Phys.org
A body in motion has kinetic energy. (See: Kinetic Energy)

When you kicked the ball, you exerted a force on the ball through a certain distance, which resulted in the ball gaining kinetic energy.
 

Thread 'Solubility of MgSO47H2O in water'

It seems like a simple enough question: what is the solubility of epsom salt in water at 20°C? A graph or table showing how it varies with temperature would be a bonus. But upon searching the internet I have been unable to determine this with confidence. Wikipedia gives the value of 113g/100ml. But other sources disagree and I can't find a definitive source for the information. I even asked chatgpt but it couldn't be sure either. I thought, naively, that this would be easy to look up without...
View full post »

Thread 'Why does having 8 valence electrons make an element inert?'

I was introduced to the Octet Rule recently and make me wonder, why does 8 valence electrons or a full p orbital always make an element inert? What is so special with a full p orbital? Like take Calcium for an example, its outer orbital is filled but its only the s orbital thats filled so its still reactive not so much as the Alkaline metals but still pretty reactive. Can someone explain it to me? Thanks!!
View full post »

Similar threads

Do Spontaneous Reactions actually need activation energy?
Replies
14
Views
4K
B The relationship between mc^2 and mc^2 x 1/2
Replies
16
Views
1K
When does an object have kinetic rotational energy?
Replies
8
Views
2K
I Is the energy destroyed in this experiment?
Replies
15
Views
2K
Why can we only measure energy (enthelpy) change?
Replies
7
Views
3K
Work done during a collision -- Change in Kinetic Energy & change in Momentum
Replies
1
Views
2K
I Exploring Energy in Astronomy: Kinetic, Potential & Mass?
Replies
13
Views
3K
B Why do objects bounce?
Replies
6
Views
1K
Force that causes ions to move to a lower concentration
Replies
12
Views
2K
I Is it possible to "violate" momentum at the expense of more energy?
Replies
2
Views
1K

Hot Threads

Recent Insights

Back
Top