Kinetic friction along a curve (Basic Calculus Question)

AI Thread Summary
A mass m travels inside a horizontal circular tube with radius r and initial velocity v_0, experiencing kinetic friction with the tube's wall. The friction force is expressed as f_friction = μN = μ(mv^2/r), where μ is the coefficient of friction. The work done by friction over a small distance S is equal to the kinetic energy lost, leading to the equation -dE_k = -mv dv. The discussion touches on the application of the product rule in calculus to derive the relationship between changes in kinetic energy and velocity. The user seeks clarification on integrating these concepts and understanding the switch between integrands in the context of energy loss due to friction.
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A mass m is traveling inside a horizontal circular tube of radius r, starting with an initial velocity v_0
There is friction between the outer wall of the tube and the mass (Friction between the floor and the mass is negligible)

EDIT:
What is the mass' velocity as a function of the distance it's traveled v(s)
(Sorry for the confusion if anyone happened to read what was written here earlier)

This is a problem that is listed as a solved example in my book, so I only really needs help with one little calculus step.

The first solution is an energy-based one.
The initial energy of the mass is \tfrac{1}{2}mv_0^2
The friction force acting on the mass : f_{friction}=\mu N= \mu \frac{mv^2}{r}

At the limit of a very small fraction of the distance along the curve, S, the force is constant, and so the work of friction along that distance is:
dW_f=\mu\frac{mv^2}{r}\,dS
This quantity is also equal to the kinetic energy lost by the mass due to friction.
\mu\frac{mv^2}{r}\,dS=-dE_k=-d(\tfrac{1}{2}mv^2})

Now according to the book: -d(\tfrac{1}{2}mv^2})=-mv\,dv
Now I can see why that's true, an integration of that expression over dv would provide us with the infinitesimal difference in kinetic energy, but I'm really have trouble understanding what the author did here to reach his conclusion, and why it is valid.
If anyone's got a webpage explaining switching between integrands (At least that's what I think it's called) I'll gladly read up on the link.

With thanks in advance,
Anatoli
 
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Without reference to kinetic energy, this is an application of the "product rule"

d(v2)=d(v*v) = vdv+vdv = 2vdv.
 
Ooh, thanks for giving me the exact name, I've struck up on some webpages I think will help me.
Thanks again. :)

Hurr, would I be correct to think of it as doing the following? :
d(\tfrac{1}{2}v^2)=\frac{d(\tfrac{1}{2}v^2)}{dv}\, dv=v\, dv

Is that a use for the product rule as well? I'm having a hard time finding the \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{dt}\frac{dt}{dx} in there. what exactly is my dx? Can it be just 1? And if so, how should I write it?

I've never had a class in integrals, so I'm just piece-mealing it from different physics questions I've solved, so forgive my ignorance. :rolleyes:
 
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