Linear Algebra: Proof involving basic properties

SNOOTCHIEBOOCHEE
Messages
141
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



A square matrix A is called nilpotent if A^k =0 for some k>0. Prove that if A is nilpotent then I+A is invertible.


The Attempt at a Solution



My guess would be to do a proof by induction (on the size of the matrix)

So for the trivial cases:

Let A be a 2x2 Nilpotent matrix... thus it is of the form

[0 x] [0 0]
[0 0] Or [x 0]


Clearly when we add I to A in this case, we get get a matrix, whose det =/= 0


Im having trouble doing the more general cases, seeing as that i cannot mentally see what nilpotent matrices of a larges size look like.

Is this even the best way to approach this problem?

Any help is appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Would using the fact that the trace of a nilpotent matrix is equal to 0 help in any way? perhaps coupled with the trace of I= n?
 
I can think of one way to do this. If I+A is invertible, then det(I-A) is non-zero, and that implies that 1 is not an eigenvalue of A. So we need to prove that last statement. Do it by contradiction:

Suppose 1 is an eigenvalue of A, that implies there is a nonzero vector v such that Av=v. Given that A is nilpotent, can such a non-zero vector v exist?

Unfortunately this method isn't constructive; while it does show that I+A is invertible, it cannot come up with the inverse of I+A itself. So does anyone else have a better idea?
 
Oh, I think it can be done directly.

Remember that 1- x^k= (1+ x)(1- x+ x^2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ (-1)^k x^{k-1})? If that still works for matrices, then taking x= A and k such that Ak= 0, you are done.
 
HallsofIvy said:
Oh, I think it can be done directly.

Remember that 1- x^k= (1+ x)(1- x+ x^2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ (-1)^k x^{k-1})? If that still works for matrices, then taking x= A and k such that Ak= 0, you are done.

How does this statement prove that it is invertible?
 
SNOOTCHIEBOOCHEE said:
How does this statement prove that it is invertible?

If I+A is invertible then I=(I+A)(I+A)^{-1} ...does that look anything like what Hallsofly posted?:wink:
 
Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...
Back
Top