Magnetic Quadrupole: Model & Vector Potential

  • Thread starter Thread starter linford86
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Magnetic
linford86
Messages
14
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



By analogy with an electric quadrupole, one can devise a simple model for a magnetic quadrupole
that consists of two small parallel loops with currents circulating in opposite senses and that are
separated by a small distance. Consider two magnetic dipoles of equal dipole moments +/-m0 z-hat
located at z = +/-a. In this case, the total dipole moment is zero. Show that, at large distances,
the vector potential is given approximately by A_{\phi} = 6 \mu_0 m_0 a sin(\theta)cos(\theta)/(4 \pi r^3).

Homework Equations



Multipole Expansion + Taylor Expansion?

The Attempt at a Solution



I think that what I need to do is to perform a multipole expansion to get the field for a single dipole. Then, superpose the two. Finally, I think I need to Taylor expand that result. Is this the correct way of going about doing things? What do I do with the radius of each dipole? (I can't get the radius of the dipole to go away!)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Simply expand the general vector potential till the quadrupole term. You will get an integral which has to be evaluated according to the given configuration.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top