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Mathematical transition from classical to quantum

  1. May 27, 2006 #1
    I have a question--in D. Bohm 1951 text Quantum Theory, on p. 6 he discusses what he calls Wien's Law formula, which contains two parameters hv/kT; where h is Planck's constant and k is Boltzmann's constant. He argues that the Wien formula fits empirical [experimental] data and thus supports theory of quantum mechanics, in contrast to the Rayleigh-Jeans Law, which does not fit empirical data.

    Now my question--if we view Wien's Law formula as an approximation for QM as explains equilibrium distribution of electromagnetic radiation in a hollow cavity, and Rayleigh-Jeans Law as an approximation for classical explanation, would it be correct to say that the "mathematical transition" between QM and classical occurs when hv = kT.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. May 27, 2006 #2
    You might want to study the thoughtful paper:
    ``Classical statistical thermodynamics and EM zero point radiation''
    by T.H. Boyer, Physical review, vol 186, number 5 (1969)
     
  4. May 27, 2006 #3
    Thank you. Here is an update to Boyer paper concerning stochastic electrodynamics (SED) as alternative to QM:
    http://www.bu.edu/simulation/publications/dcole/PDF/DCColePhysicsLettA.pdf
     
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