I have a question--in D. Bohm 1951 text Quantum Theory, on p. 6 he discusses what he calls Wien's Law formula, which contains two parameters(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); hv/kT; wherehis Planck's constant and k is Boltzmann's constant. He argues that the Wien formula fits empirical [experimental] data and thus supports theory of quantum mechanics, in contrast to the Rayleigh-Jeans Law, which does not fit empirical data.

Now my question--if we view Wien's Law formula as an approximation for QM as explains equilibrium distribution of electromagnetic radiation in a hollow cavity, and Rayleigh-Jeans Law as an approximation for classical explanation, would it be correct to say that the "mathematical transition" between QM and classical occurs whenhv= kT.

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# Mathematical transition from classical to quantum

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