Maybe triangle inequalities theorem

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around proving the inequality ac + bd ≤ 1 given that a² + b² = 1 and c² + d² = 1. Participants clarify that a, b, c, and d are assumed to be real numbers, which is essential for the proof. They explore the use of the triangle inequality and analyze expressions like (a+c)² + (b+d)² to derive the necessary conclusions. The conversation also touches on the extension of inequalities to complex numbers, though it emphasizes that this is not relevant for the current proof. Ultimately, the consensus is that the triangle inequality provides a straightforward approach to validate the inequality in question.
azizlwl
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Homework Statement


Prove: If a2+b2=1, and c2+d2=1, then ac+bd ≤1


Homework Equations



Maybe triangle inequalities theorem.

The Attempt at a Solution

 
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For this question to make sense, I think a,b,c and d must be Real numbers. Is this given?

Hint: What is (a+c)2+(b+d)2?
 


gabbagabbahey said:
For this question to make sense, I think a,b,c and d must be Real numbers. Is this given?

Hint: What is (a+c)2+(b+d)2?

Thanks
At the beginning of the chapter, "An inequalities is a statement that one(Real)number is greater than or less than another".
Is there inequalites in complex number?

(a+c)2+(b+d)2≥0
equal zero if both factors=0, greater than zero if one or both factor not equal to zero.
a2+c2+2ac +b2+d2+2bd≥0
2+2ac+2bd≥0
ac+bd≤-1 ?

So it should be
(a-c)2+(b-d)2≥0
Equal to zero if a=c and b=d, greater than zero if one or both of components of the factors not equal.
a2+c2-2ac +b2+d2-2bd≥0
2-2ac-2bd≥0
ac+bd≤1
 
Last edited:


azizlwl said:
Thanks
At the beginning of the chapter, "An inequalities is a statement that one(Real)number is greater than or less than another".
Is there inequalites in complex number?

One can extend the definition of an inequality to deal with complex numbers (by comparing their real and imaginary parts), but this isn't nessecary in this case since if a and c are both purely imaginary, their product will still be real (but the inequality that you are supposed to prove may not be satisfied).

Anyways, if you are studying real numbers then it is probably safe to assume all 4 numbers (a,b,c & d) are real.

a2+c2+2ac +b2+d2+2bd≥0
2+2ac+2bd≥0
ac+bd≤-1 ?

This is true, but not all that useful here. instead of looking at the lower limit of (a+c)2+(b+d)2, use the triangle inequality (twice) to look at its upper limit.

Keep in mind, that if x2+y2=1 (for real-valued x & y), then |x|^2=x^2=1-y^2≤1 :wink:

So it should be
(a-c)2+(b-d)2≥0
a2+c2-2ac +b2+d2-2bd≥0
2-2ac-2bd≥0
ac+bd≤1

This method also works and is even simpler than mine!:approve:
 


gabbagabbahey said:
One can extend the definition of an inequality to deal with complex numbers (by comparing their real and imaginary parts), but this isn't nessecary in this case since if a and c are both purely imaginary, their product will still be real (but the inequality that you are supposed to prove may not be satisfied).
But (not relevant to this question but just so that other readers do not get the wrong idea) that extension of inequality does not make the complex numbers an ordered field. In particular, if x< y and 0< z, it is NOT necessarily true that xz< yz.

Anyways, if you are studying real numbers then it is probably safe to assume all 4 numbers (a,b,c & d) are real.



This is true, but not all that useful here. instead of looking at the lower limit of (a+c)2+(b+d)2, use the triangle inequality (twice) to look at its upper limit.

Keep in mind, that if x2+y2=1 (for real-valued x & y), then |x|^2=x^2=1-y^2≤1 :wink:



This method also works and is even simpler than mine!:approve:
 
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