Mellin transform-- complete Riemann function

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around demonstrating the equality involving the Mellin transform and the Riemann function. Participants express uncertainty about how to manipulate the integral and series, particularly regarding the transformation of variables to achieve the desired form. Suggestions include changing variables to simplify the expression and considering the expansion of the exponential function. There is a focus on the need for clarity in handling the parameters involved in the summation and integration. Overall, the thread highlights the challenges faced in tackling this mathematical problem and seeks guidance on the correct approach.
binbagsss
Messages
1,291
Reaction score
12

Homework Statement



Show that ## \int\limits^{\infty}_0 \sum\limits^{\infty}_{n=1}e^{-\pi n^{2} t} t^{s-1} dt = \sum\limits^{\infty}_{n=1}(\pi n^{2} )^{-s} \int\limits^{\infty}_{0} e^{-t} t^{s-1} dt ##

Homework Equations



##\Phi (t)=\theta(it/2)=1+2\sum\limits^{\infty}_{n=1}e^{-\pi n^2 t}. ##

With the transformation formula : ##\Phi(1/t)=t^{1/2}\Phi(t) ##

The Attempt at a Solution



I am unsure really where to start, a clue would be greatly appreciated.

The only thing I can really think of is transforming ##t## to get ##t^{s}## rather than ##t^{1/2}## on the RHS of (1), but I am a) unsure how to do this b) unsure whether it is the right thing to do

The other thing would be to expand out the exponential, writing it as two expressions multiplied together corresponding to the ##-t## in the exponent power and the ## \pi n^{2} ## seperately, collecting the sum to infinity to get ##e^{-t}## and leaving the bit corresponding to "##e^{\pi n^{2}}" ## as a summation. However the ##-s## means the choice of my variable of this summation would need to be ##s##, which doesn't really make sense?

I'm quite stuck.

Any help greatly appreciated,

Many thanks.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
binbagsss said:

Homework Statement



Show that ## \int\limits^{\infty}_0 \sum\limits^{\infty}_{n=1}e^{-\pi n^{2} t} t^{s-1} dt = \sum\limits^{\infty}_{n=1}(\pi n^{2} )^{-s} \int\limits^{\infty}_{0} e^{-t} t^{s-1} dt ##

Homework Equations



##\Phi (t)=\theta(it/2)=1+2\sum\limits^{\infty}_{n=1}e^{-\pi n^2 t}. ##

With the transformation formula : ##\Phi(1/t)=t^{1/2}\Phi(t) ##

The Attempt at a Solution



I am unsure really where to start, a clue would be greatly appreciated.

The only thing I can really think of is transforming ##t## to get ##t^{s}## rather than ##t^{1/2}## on the RHS of (1), but I am a) unsure how to do this b) unsure whether it is the right thing to do

The other thing would be to expand out the exponential, writing it as two expressions multiplied together corresponding to the ##-t## in the exponent power and the ## \pi n^{2} ## seperately, collecting the sum to infinity to get ##e^{-t}## and leaving the bit corresponding to "##e^{\pi n^{2}}" ## as a summation. However the ##-s## means the choice of my variable of this summation would need to be ##s##, which doesn't really make sense?

I'm quite stuck.

Any help greatly appreciated,

Many thanks.

Do a change of variables of the form ##u=\pi n^2 t##.
 
eys_physics said:
Do a change of variables of the form ##u=\pi n^2 t##.
cheers !
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 31 ·
2
Replies
31
Views
4K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K