- #1
Mike s
- 15
- 0
Hey,
I need help with the following question in microeconomics:
A consumer lives in a world of two goods: computers and money. Let x be the number of computers,the consumer can buy.
[itex]x\epsilon [0,1,2,3][/itex]
The consumer has the following preference relation: If the consumer has money and no computers, he is willing to spend at most half of his money on buying a single computer. If the consumer has 1 computer, he is willing to spend 1/3 of his money on buying a second computer. If the consumer has 2 computers, he is willing to spend 1/4 of his money on buying a third computer.
A. Explain why [itex] (0,M)[/itex]~[itex](1,\frac{M}{2})[/itex]~[itex](2,\frac{M}{3})[/itex]~[itex](3,\frac{M}{4})[/itex]
B.Explain why the consumer's preference relation can be represented the following utility function [itex]U(x,M)=(x+1)M[/itex].
C.Prove that computer is not an inferior good
I have managed to solve A,B , however I need help in C.
I need help with the following question in microeconomics:
A consumer lives in a world of two goods: computers and money. Let x be the number of computers,the consumer can buy.
[itex]x\epsilon [0,1,2,3][/itex]
The consumer has the following preference relation: If the consumer has money and no computers, he is willing to spend at most half of his money on buying a single computer. If the consumer has 1 computer, he is willing to spend 1/3 of his money on buying a second computer. If the consumer has 2 computers, he is willing to spend 1/4 of his money on buying a third computer.
A. Explain why [itex] (0,M)[/itex]~[itex](1,\frac{M}{2})[/itex]~[itex](2,\frac{M}{3})[/itex]~[itex](3,\frac{M}{4})[/itex]
B.Explain why the consumer's preference relation can be represented the following utility function [itex]U(x,M)=(x+1)M[/itex].
C.Prove that computer is not an inferior good
I have managed to solve A,B , however I need help in C.