- #1
maverick280857
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Hello all,
I am trying to understand the analytic method for the solution of the (quantum) harmonic oscillator equation.
[tex]-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{1}{2}m\omega^{2}x^{2}\psi = E\psi[/tex]
Let
[tex]\zeta = \sqrt{\frac{m\omega}{\hbar}}x[/tex]
[tex]K = \frac{2E}{\hbar\omega}[/tex]
We consider
[tex]\psi(\zeta) = h(\zeta)e^{-\zeta^{2}/2}[/tex]
The equation transforms to,
[tex]\frac{d^2 h}{d\zeta^2} - 2\zeta\frac{dh}{d\zeta} + (K-1)h = 0[/tex]
Assuming the power series solution,
[tex]h(\zeta) = \sum_{j=0}^{\infty}a_{j}\zeta^{j}[/tex]
we get the recursion formula,
[tex]a_{j+2} = \frac{2j+1-K}{(j+1)(j+2)}a_{j}[/tex]
For large j,
[tex]a_{j+2} \cong \frac{2}{j}a_{j}[/tex]
So,
[tex]a_{j+2} \cong \frac{2}{j}\frac{2}{(j-1)}\frac{2}{(j-2)}\ldots\frac{2}{1}a_{1}[/tex]
which simplifes to
[tex]a_{j+2} \cong \frac{2^j}{j!}a_{1}[/tex]
But the solution given is
[tex]a_{j} = \frac{C}{(j/2)!} = C \frac{1}{(j/2)}}\frac{1}{((j/2)-1)}\ldots\ldots[/tex]
I think I am missing something here. What am I doing wrong? Also, I know that the [itex](j/2)![/itex] is just notation but what if the "large j" include some possibly odd values? In that case it wouldn't even be defined. Thanks for your help.
EDIT: 800th post...yay
I am trying to understand the analytic method for the solution of the (quantum) harmonic oscillator equation.
[tex]-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{1}{2}m\omega^{2}x^{2}\psi = E\psi[/tex]
Let
[tex]\zeta = \sqrt{\frac{m\omega}{\hbar}}x[/tex]
[tex]K = \frac{2E}{\hbar\omega}[/tex]
We consider
[tex]\psi(\zeta) = h(\zeta)e^{-\zeta^{2}/2}[/tex]
The equation transforms to,
[tex]\frac{d^2 h}{d\zeta^2} - 2\zeta\frac{dh}{d\zeta} + (K-1)h = 0[/tex]
Assuming the power series solution,
[tex]h(\zeta) = \sum_{j=0}^{\infty}a_{j}\zeta^{j}[/tex]
we get the recursion formula,
[tex]a_{j+2} = \frac{2j+1-K}{(j+1)(j+2)}a_{j}[/tex]
For large j,
[tex]a_{j+2} \cong \frac{2}{j}a_{j}[/tex]
So,
[tex]a_{j+2} \cong \frac{2}{j}\frac{2}{(j-1)}\frac{2}{(j-2)}\ldots\frac{2}{1}a_{1}[/tex]
which simplifes to
[tex]a_{j+2} \cong \frac{2^j}{j!}a_{1}[/tex]
But the solution given is
[tex]a_{j} = \frac{C}{(j/2)!} = C \frac{1}{(j/2)}}\frac{1}{((j/2)-1)}\ldots\ldots[/tex]
I think I am missing something here. What am I doing wrong? Also, I know that the [itex](j/2)![/itex] is just notation but what if the "large j" include some possibly odd values? In that case it wouldn't even be defined. Thanks for your help.
EDIT: 800th post...yay
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