Misbehaving Imaginary Fractions

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the misunderstanding of the square root properties when dealing with negative numbers. Specifically, it addresses why \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{-1}} \neq \sqrt{\frac{-1}{1}}\) despite \(\frac{1}{-1} = \frac{-1}{1}\). The key point is that the identity \(\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}} = \frac{\sqrt{a}}{\sqrt{b}}\) only holds true when both \(a\) and \(b\) are non-negative. This highlights the limitations of certain mathematical rules when applied to negative values. The conversation concludes with an acknowledgment of the simplicity of the explanation, leading to further contemplation on related mathematical concepts.
a.powell
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Homework Statement


Why is
\sqrt{\frac{1}{-1}} \neq \sqrt{\frac{-1}{1}}
when quite obviously
\frac{1}{-1} = \frac{-1}{1}

Homework Equations


N/A


The Attempt at a Solution


By the above inequality, I mean when one calculates \sqrt{\frac{1}{-1}} as \frac{\sqrt{1}}{\sqrt{-1}}, and \sqrt{\frac{-1}{1}} as \frac{\sqrt{-1}}{\sqrt{1}}. Is it just that the "rule" which is taught at school for taking roots of fractions just doesn't always apply? That'd seem a little arbitrary.



This isn't a homework question, it's just something that popped into my mind while lying in bed, interspersed among much more interesting thoughts on isospin. I'm a final-year mathematician at university and I can't believe I'm asking such a basic question, but my migraine-addled brain won't let me work out why the above is true. It seems so trivial and pathetically simple that I must be missing something really obvious. Could someone shed some light and save me from my shame in asking such a question?
 
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a.powell said:

Homework Statement


Why is
\sqrt{\frac{1}{-1}} \neq \sqrt{\frac{-1}{1}}
when quite obviously
\frac{1}{-1} = \frac{-1}{1}

Homework Equations


N/A


The Attempt at a Solution


By the above inequality, I mean when one calculates \sqrt{\frac{1}{-1}} as \frac{\sqrt{1}}{\sqrt{-1}}, and \sqrt{\frac{-1}{1}} as \frac{\sqrt{-1}}{\sqrt{1}}. Is it just that the "rule" which is taught at school for taking roots of fractions just doesn't always apply? That'd seem a little arbitrary.



This isn't a homework question, it's just something that popped into my mind while lying in bed, interspersed among much more interesting thoughts on isospin. I'm a final-year mathematician at university and I can't believe I'm asking such a basic question, but my migraine-addled brain won't let me work out why the above is true. It seems so trivial and pathetically simple that I must be missing something really obvious. Could someone shed some light and save me from my shame in asking such a question?

The rule you learned is not universally true: the identity
\sqrt{\frac{a}{b}} = \frac{\sqrt{a}}{\sqrt{b}}
is true for b > 0 and a ≥ 0. As you have seen, it is not true when a < 0 and/or b < 0. The same can be said for the identity
\sqrt{ab} = \sqrt{a} \sqrt{b}
and for
\log(ab) = \log(a) + \log(b),
etc.

RGV
 
So it really was a case of the taught rule not applying everywhere, I'm a little disappointed it was that simple to be honest. Oh well, thank you both for saving me, back to bed for more thoughts on isospin.
 
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