- #1
ehrenfest
- 2,020
- 1
Why does
[tex] 1/\sqrt{2\pi\hbar }\int p-hat/2m * \psi(x) exp(-ipx/\hbar)*dx = p^2/2m \phi(p) [/tex], where phi(p) is that wavefunction in momentum space
?
I understand why [tex] 1/\sqrt{2\pi\hbar }\int \psi(x) exp(-ipx/\hbar)*dx = \phi(p) [/tex].
by the way, how do you make hats in latex
EDIT: It should be [tex] 1/\sqrt{2\pi\hbar }\int p-hat^2/2m * \psi(x) exp(-ipx/\hbar)*dx = p^2/2m \phi(p) [/tex]
[tex] 1/\sqrt{2\pi\hbar }\int p-hat/2m * \psi(x) exp(-ipx/\hbar)*dx = p^2/2m \phi(p) [/tex], where phi(p) is that wavefunction in momentum space
?
I understand why [tex] 1/\sqrt{2\pi\hbar }\int \psi(x) exp(-ipx/\hbar)*dx = \phi(p) [/tex].
by the way, how do you make hats in latex
EDIT: It should be [tex] 1/\sqrt{2\pi\hbar }\int p-hat^2/2m * \psi(x) exp(-ipx/\hbar)*dx = p^2/2m \phi(p) [/tex]
Last edited: