My Proof of Structure Theorem for Finite Abelian Groups

Site
Messages
26
Reaction score
0
Hello! If anybody has a minute, I'd appreciate a quick look-through of my proof that a finite abelian group can be decomposed into a direct product of cyclic subgroups. I'm new to formal writing (as well as Latex) and all feedback is greatly appreciated!

Thanks in advance for your time!

http://www.scribd.com/doc/130897466/Structure-of-Finite-Abelian-Groups-Brian-Blake
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Your Lemma 1 is not valid. Consider for example a cyclic group ##G = \langle x\rangle## with ##|G| = p^2##. The subgroup ##H = \langle x^p \rangle## has order ##p##, so ##G/H## and ##H## are both cyclic with order ##p##. But clearly ##G/H \times H## is not cyclic; it has order ##p^2## but any element has order ##1## or ##p##.

The problem is your claim that ##\phi(g_1 g_2) = (x^{k+j}H, h_1 h_2)##. This is not true in general. Let's take a concrete example with ##G## as above.

Suppose ##p = 3##, so ##G = \{e, x, x^2, \ldots x^8\}##, and ##H = \{e, x^3, x^6\}##, and ##G/H = \{H, xH, x^2 H\}##.

Take ##g_1 = x^{4} = x^1 x^3 \in x H## and ##g_2 = x^{5} = x^2 x^3 \in x^2 H##. Then ##g_1 g_2 = x^{9} = e = x^0 x^0 \in H##.

Then:
$$\phi(g_1) = (x H, x^{3})$$
$$\phi(g_2) = (x^2 H, x^{3})$$
but
$$\phi(g_1 g_2) = (H, x^{0})$$
whereas
$$\phi(g_1)\phi(g_2) = (x H \cdot x^2 H, x^{3}\cdot x^{3}) = (H, x^{6}) \neq \phi(g_1 g_2)$$
 
Last edited:
Sorry, I had to make a few minor edits. Please refresh if you've already read the post.
 
Thank you very much! I guess I was thinking incorrectly that the order of x was also the order of the quotient group. Back to the drawing board!
 
Site said:
Thank you very much! I guess I was thinking incorrectly that the order of x was also the order of the quotient group. Back to the drawing board!
No problem, feel free to post an update when you have a revised proof. It was a good attempt - I knew the conclusion of Lemma 1 was wrong, but it took me a while to spot the problem with your proof.

Also, your writing style and Latex are good, so nothing to worry about there.
 
##\textbf{Exercise 10}:## I came across the following solution online: Questions: 1. When the author states in "that ring (not sure if he is referring to ##R## or ##R/\mathfrak{p}##, but I am guessing the later) ##x_n x_{n+1}=0## for all odd $n$ and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible, so that ##x_n=0##" 2. How does ##x_nx_{n+1}=0## implies that ##x_{n+1}## is invertible and ##x_n=0##. I mean if the quotient ring ##R/\mathfrak{p}## is an integral domain, and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible then...
The following are taken from the two sources, 1) from this online page and the book An Introduction to Module Theory by: Ibrahim Assem, Flavio U. Coelho. In the Abelian Categories chapter in the module theory text on page 157, right after presenting IV.2.21 Definition, the authors states "Image and coimage may or may not exist, but if they do, then they are unique up to isomorphism (because so are kernels and cokernels). Also in the reference url page above, the authors present two...
When decomposing a representation ##\rho## of a finite group ##G## into irreducible representations, we can find the number of times the representation contains a particular irrep ##\rho_0## through the character inner product $$ \langle \chi, \chi_0\rangle = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g\in G} \chi(g) \chi_0(g)^*$$ where ##\chi## and ##\chi_0## are the characters of ##\rho## and ##\rho_0##, respectively. Since all group elements in the same conjugacy class have the same characters, this may be...
Back
Top