Need a little help with this {f_n} converging to f(x) proof

In summary, the homework statement is as follows:- Assume that f_n -> f pointwise on S.- Define E as the set of all x in S such that |f_n(x)-f(x)|<epsilon.- Claim that E is measurable, and that for all n in N, x is in E for some n in N.
  • #1
jinsing
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Homework Statement



Suppose that [tex]f_n \stackrel{P}{\rightarrow} f[/tex] on [tex]S[/tex]. Given [tex]\epsilon >0[/tex] define [tex]E_{\epsilon,n}=\{x\in S \mid |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon\}.[/tex]
Prove that [tex]\forall \epsilon >0[/tex] [tex]\cup_{n=1}^\infty E_{\epsilon,n}=S[/tex].

Homework Equations



Know about measurability, pointwise convergence etc.


The Attempt at a Solution



I came up with this proof, but I'm not entirely sure it's right. It's also not very formalized..but besides that it almost seems like it's missing something:

Assume {f_n} -> f pointwise on S, and given epsilon>0 define E as above. Note that E = [tex] \bigcap_{n=1}^\infty \{x \mid |f_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon\}.[/tex]
Since each f_n is measurable and f_n -> f pointwise, then we know f_n-f is measurable for all n in N, and so [tex] \{x \mid f_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon\} [/tex] is measurable for all n in N, thus E_{n,\epsilon} is a countable intersection of measurable sets and therefore measurable.
Note that E_{n,epsilon} is contained in E_{n+1,epsilon} for all n in N. Note also that since f_n -> f pointwise for all x in S, f_n(x) -> f(x) as n->\infty. So for all x in S there exists a k in N such that whenever N\geq k |f_N(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon. Hence for all x in S, x is in E_{n,\epsilon} for some n in N. Thus [tex] \bigcup_{n=1}^\infty E_{n, \epsilon} = S,[/tex] as desired.

Thanks in advance, guys!
 
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  • #2
Imo this is a bad question. There is nothing to prove just write down the definition of pointwise convergence.

let x be an element of x. By Assumption for all ε>0 there exists M s.t. if n>M |fn(x) - f(x)| <ε. Hence x is an element of En for some n.
 
  • #3
Yeah, it seemed suspiciously straight-forward to me too. I guess I was wondering if there was any discrepancy between the 'given epsilon > 0' and having to prove 'for all epsilon > 0.' Is this the same thing?
 

1. How do I prove that f_n converges to f(x)?

To prove that f_n converges to f(x), you need to show that as n approaches infinity, the value of f_n approaches f(x). This can be done by using the definition of convergence or by using other convergence tests such as the Cauchy criterion or the Monotone convergence theorem.

2. What is the significance of proving convergence of f_n to f(x)?

Proving the convergence of f_n to f(x) is important because it ensures that the sequence of functions is approaching a specific limit, which can be useful in finding the value of f(x) or in understanding the behavior of the sequence.

3. Can I use a specific convergence test to prove the convergence of f_n to f(x)?

Yes, there are several convergence tests that can be used to prove the convergence of f_n to f(x), such as the Cauchy criterion, the Monotone convergence theorem, or the Weierstrass M-test. Which test to use depends on the specific characteristics of the sequence and the function.

4. What are some common mistakes to avoid when proving the convergence of f_n to f(x)?

One common mistake is assuming that f_n converges to f(x) without proper justification. It is important to show the steps and reasoning behind the proof. Another mistake is using an incorrect convergence test or misapplying a convergence test. It is important to carefully consider the conditions of the test before using it.

5. How can I check my proof for errors?

One way to check your proof for errors is to carefully review each step and make sure that it follows logically from the previous step. Another way is to consult with a colleague or professor for feedback. You can also try to find counterexamples or boundary cases to test the validity of your proof.

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