Net Magnetic Moment on Typical Ferromagnets

sokrates
Messages
481
Reaction score
2
What is the "net" magnetic moment per atom of a typical ferromagnet crystal ? I suspect the number will be different from those of "isolated" atoms because of band formation and spilling...
But I am not very sure, this could be wrong.

Is it 1 Bohr magneton per atom, 10 , 50 more ?

Do you have any ball park numbers on this or references?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Yes, they definitely can be different. A trivial example is Ag, which has a single unpaired electron in an isolated atom, but as metallic silver it is non-magnetic.

I don't know the experimental value, but from a DFT calculation the moment for Fe is 2.2\mu_B. In general, band formation (kinetic energy) competes with moment formation (exchange energy), so more localized orbitals (3d, 4f) tend to have narrower bandwidths and larger moments than less localized ones (4d, 5f).

For lanthanides, because the 4f states form very narrow bands, the 4f moment is about the same as the 4f moment for an isolated atom. IIRC this is true too for late actinides, past Am.
 
I see...What about Cobalt and other alloys? Is there a tabulated reference where I can look all these up?

Thank you for the enlightening response,
 
I don't know, I only know the iron value because I recently did the calculation myself. Isolated atoms are pretty well characterized in any of the periodic table websites around the web, but I don't know of any similar database for solids.
 
kanato said:
Yes, they definitely can be different. A trivial example is Ag, which has a single unpaired electron in an isolated atom, but as metallic silver it is non-magnetic.

I don't know the experimental value,
Turns out that it's a good deal lower than the DFT calculation. Around 0.8 Bohr magnetons, I think. Which is strange. Sorry, OP I don't know of a good general reference. Cheers,

Adam

but from a DFT calculation the moment for Fe is 2.2\mu_B. In general, band formation (kinetic energy) competes with moment formation (exchange energy), so more localized orbitals (3d, 4f) tend to have narrower bandwidths and larger moments than less localized ones (4d, 5f).

For lanthanides, because the 4f states form very narrow bands, the 4f moment is about the same as the 4f moment for an isolated atom. IIRC this is true too for late actinides, past Am.
 
From the BCS theory of superconductivity is well known that the superfluid density smoothly decreases with increasing temperature. Annihilated superfluid carriers become normal and lose their momenta on lattice atoms. So if we induce a persistent supercurrent in a ring below Tc and after that slowly increase the temperature, we must observe a decrease in the actual supercurrent, because the density of electron pairs and total supercurrent momentum decrease. However, this supercurrent...
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
Back
Top