No. of spinless particles in the left half of a box

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The discussion revolves around solving a homework problem regarding the number of spinless particles in the left half of a box. Participants clarify that since the particles are spinless bosons, the Bose-Einstein distribution function is initially considered, but it is noted that a fixed energy system does not apply to this distribution. Instead, the eigenstates of a particle in a box are examined, leading to calculations of probabilities for specific energy states. The probability of finding a particle in the left half of the box is consistently 1/2 for stationary states, allowing for straightforward calculations of the number of particles based on total energy. The conversation concludes with a focus on integrating the normalized wavefunction to represent probabilities in the context of the problem.
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Homework Statement


upload_2017-11-9_17-33-44.png

How to solve question no. 35?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Since the particle is spinless, spin = 0 , this means that the particle is a boson.
Applying Bose - Einstein distribution function,
## f(E) = \frac1 { e^{\beta ( E - \mu)} -1}##
I can get the value of ##\beta ## and ##\mu## [as this distribution function tells us the no. of particles having the energy E of a given system.
Since I have LHS for two given values of E, I have 2 eqns. and hence I can determine ##\beta ## and ##\mu## .
Now, what to do?
How to connect this with the given information in question?
 

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Pushoam said:
Applying Bose - Einstein distribution function,
## f(E) = \frac1 { e^{\beta ( E - \mu)} -1}##
You have a system with a fixed energy, not a fixed temperature, hence to BE distribution does not apply. Start by considering the eigenstates of a particle in a box.
 
DrClaude said:
You have a system with a fixed energy, not a fixed temperature, hence to BE distribution does not apply. Start by considering the eigenstates of a particle in a box.
The eigen energy of a particle in a box is
## E_n = \frac{ n^2 h^2}{2 m a^2} = n^2 \epsilon_0##
This gives that the particles are in the states n =2,15.
Do I have to calculate the probability of getting a particle with energy ## E_2 ~ and~ E_{15}## each in the left half region and then I will multiply the probabililty with 1000 and add the two no.?
 
Pushoam said:
Do I have to calculate the probability of getting a particle with energy ## E_2 ~ and~ E_{15}## each in the left half region and then I will multiply the probabililty with 1000 and add the two no.?
Basically yes, assuming that the observation time is chosen randomly (or consider the result "on average").
 
DrClaude said:
Basically yes, assuming that the observation time is chosen randomly (or consider the result "on average").
I didn't get the assumption. Why do we need the assuption?
 
Pushoam said:
I didn't get the assumption. Why do we need the assuption?
Because a superposition of stationary states of different energies is not itself a stationary state. The particles will be sloshing from left to right.
 
i calculated the probability of finding a particle on the left half of the box, and it is always 1/2 for a stationary state, for all n..
so, for the particles with energy 4e, the no of particles on the left half 100/2 = 50, for 225e, 900/2 = 450, total 500..

best of luck for the TIFR GS btw..
 
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Thanks.
 
sayakd said:
i calculated the probability of finding a particle on the left half of the box, and it is always 1/2 for a stationary state, for all n..
Is the probability of finding the particle between ## x_i and x_f ## for 1 D box ##\frac { x_f - x_i} { L} ##, where L is the length of the box?

I am not caclculating it. I just want to see it this way if it is so.
 
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I don't know the closed way to represent the probability, what I did was integration of psi* multiplied by psi with the limit - L to 0,where psi is the normalized wavefunction of 1d potential box.. 2L is the length of the box..
 
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