Nonsinusodial wave function problem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on solving the nonsinusoidal wave function problem using the Schrödinger equation for a particle in a box at an energy level of E = 0. The wave function is defined as ψ(x) = Ax + B, where A and B are constants. Boundary conditions at x = 0 and x = L lead to the conclusion that both A and B must equal zero, resulting in a trivial solution where the wave function is identically zero, indicating no probability of finding a particle in the box. This highlights the impossibility of having a valid wave function of this form.

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  • Knowledge of wave functions and eigenvalues
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Homework Statement


I am having a problem with an example problem in my physics book. The example goes like so:

a.)Show that
[tex]\psi(x) = Ax + B[/tex]
[tex]A, B, constant[/tex]
is a solution of the Schrödinger equation for an E = 0 energy level of a particle in a box. b.) what constraints do the boundary conditions at x = 0 and x = L place on the constants A and B?


Homework Equations


[tex]\frac{-\hbar^{2}}{2m}\frac{d^{2}\psi(x)}{dx^{2}}= E\psi(x)[/tex]


The Attempt at a Solution


Part a i understand completely -- i just take the second derivative of the wave function and find its eigenvalue to be 0, which corresponds to the energy. However, for part b, I am not quite understanding how the book applies the boundary conditions. They claim the following:

"applying the boundary condition:
[tex]x = 0[/tex]
[tex]\psi(0) = A = 0[/tex]
so,
[tex]A = 0, and \psi(x) = Bx[/tex].
Then applying the boundary condition:
[tex]x = L[/tex]
gives [tex]\psi(L) = BL = 0[/tex]
so B must be zero. How are they finding this for the IVP? If i plug zero into the wave function i get B = 0, not A = 0. I must be missing something. Could someone please tell me what I'm not seeing? Thank you!
 
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Agreed. If psi is zero at x = 0, then there no constant term (the linear wavefunction starts at the origin). ==> B = 0.

The other boundary condition would give you AL = 0. ==> A = 0.

So, the wavefunction is identically zero. Which means that there is no chance of a particle being in the box. So what was the point of this problem exactly?

Edit: By this, what I mean is that, isn't this the TRIVIAL solution to the eigenvalue equation? If there is no particle in the box, the energy of the system is zero (inside the box).

Edit 2: In fact, I thought that a zero eigenfunction was not allowed as a valid solution to the eigenvalue equation, because it would have infinitely many possible eigenvalues.
 
Last edited:
The problem was intented to be trivial i think to show that you can't have a valid wave function of this form since you would get zero probability of finding your particle anywhere. But, I am glad that you also get AL = 0 and B = 0 instead of A = 0 and BL = 0 (they lead to the same thing but them getting it in that form is somewhat bothersome for me because I feel like I'm missing somehing). Thank you for the help!
 

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