Object exerts an opposing force of equal magnitude

In summary, Newton's 3rd law stated with every force u exert on an object, the object exerts an opposing force of equal magnitude. If so why is that we're able to move objects around?Because the forces act on DIFFERENT objects.Lets consider two cases. In the one case you push a box over the floor and in the other case you push against a wall. Obviously the answer lies in how hard the object can push back at you. If it has not moved when you reached your maximum strength, then you are in trouble, no motion of the object = no motion of you. The answer therefore lies in the system that you are considering (you + box). You
  • #36
now i have to solve for the coefficient of kinetic friction. kinetic friction force is supposed to be proportional to the Fn. but from wat is given, how do i work out the friction force?
 
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  • #37
What is the constant of proportionality in the equation relating kinetic frictional force and normal force ?
What are the conditions for horizontal equilibrium ?
As Doc Al suggested, write down the math step by step .
 
  • #38
frictional force is related to the Fn.

Fn = 156, Fx = 69.2. coefficient of friction is 69.2 divided by 156 = 0.44

am i correct?
 
  • #39
Ukitake Jyuushirou said:
w=mg
196=20x9.8

Fn = 196 (no vertical force)

196-40 = 156 (force of 40N in +y-component)
Fn = 156
Good. But just for the record, here's how I would do it:
(Sum of the forces in the vertical direction) = +Fn -mg +80sin(30) = 0

That's the equation for vertical equilibrium. Solving it (trivial, yes) gives:
Fn = mg - 80sin(30)

Now do the same for horizontal forces.
 
  • #40
Doc Al said:
Good. But just for the record, here's how I would do it:
(Sum of the forces in the vertical direction) = +Fn -mg +80sin(30) = 0

That's the equation for vertical equilibrium. Solving it (trivial, yes) gives:
Fn = mg - 80sin(30)

Now do the same for horizontal forces.
using ur formula


Fx = 80cos30 = 69.2
 
  • #41
OK. Again, the way I would do it is:
(Sum of the forces in the horizontal direction) = -Ff +80cos(30) = 0

Solving gives: Ff = 80cos(30)

(The reason for sticking to a systematic approach is: (1) It drives home the key physics principles & (2) It allows you to solve much harder problems.)

Now you can apply the other relationship you know about kinetic friction to solve for [itex]\mu_k[/itex] systematically.
 
  • #42
Doc Al said:
OK. Again, the way I would do it is:
(Sum of the forces in the horizontal direction) = -Ff +80cos(30) = 0

Solving gives: Ff = 80cos(30)

(The reason for sticking to a systematic approach is: (1) It drives home the key physics principles & (2) It allows you to solve much harder problems.)

Now you can apply the other relationship you know about kinetic friction to solve for [itex]\mu_k[/itex] systematically.
yes ur right. :smile: i'd try to use this approach for my other qns

frictional force is related to the Fn.

Fn = 156, Fx = 69.2. coefficient of friction is 69.2 divided by 156 = 0.44

am i correct?
 
  • #43
Looks good. I'd write it this way. The key relationship for kinetic friction is:
[itex]F_f = \mu_k F_n[/itex]

thus:
[itex]\mu_k = F_f /F_n[/itex]

then just plug in the numbers
 
  • #44
whew...one question down...many many more to go... thanks for everyone's help and advice :smile:
 
  • #45
I think we beat that one to death! :smile:
 
  • #46
We sure did :smile:
 

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