- #1

daskywalker

- 11

- 0

http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/7/7/6/77663157d5b97ceb2e3edac5f587a620.png and

http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/b/3/c/b3c569c85552561e41dec916f6e8ebe8.png

Experimentally I found out that if I feed in 0V in both log. and exp. amplifiers I get 0V output.

But according to the equations the log of zero is undefined and the power of any number is one, i.e. I should never get zero output voltage.

I was wondering how to explain this observation, was it that my experiment was flawed or that real life op amps behave differently than those equations predict?