wow I've procrastinated for two weeks ?
Dread of Latex .
using the tool of Mutual Inductance
where k is the fraction of flux that couples both coils, ie doesn't leak.
k of 1 is 'ideal coupling'
L2 then = ##\frac{M^2}{k^2L1}##
we redraw the circuit showing the interaction between windings as dependent voltage sources
in the primary is a dependent voltage source , with polarity aiding the applied voltage, with amplitude jωI
2M
and
in the secondary is a dependent voltage source, with polarity to satisfy the dot convention, and of amplitude jωI
1M .
as drawn above.
So they criss-cross. Primary current sets secondary OC voltage, and secondary current reduces primary counter-emf.
Mutual inductance M takes care of the turns ratios and k handles leakage flux.Ignoring the capacitor that was in the original image
we have found from open circuit test,
where I1 was 5 amps, primary volts 100 and secondary voltage 50 ,
r
1 = ##\frac{250}{I_1^2} = 10 Ω##
jωL
1 = √300 ohms , so L
1 = ##\frac{\sqrt{300}}{100π}## = 0.05513 Henry
Ohms of Mutual Inductance jwL
M = 50V/5 amps = 10 ohms, so M =10/100π = ##\frac{1}{10π}## = 0.03183 Henry
.........
From short circuit test
we learn that at 5 amps of primary current
P
q = 144.3 var
and since the only resistance present is the ten ohms of r
1, power must still be 250 Watts
giving total VA of ##\sqrt{250^2 + 144.3^2} = 288.65...## VA
which dictates an impedance angle of 29.99354 degrees -
(for a textbook problem that's sooo diggone close to 30 that i have to think it's result of truncation
but i'll work with his numbers as given , however i will round to 4 digits)
288.65 VA at 5 amps dictates 57.73 volts
144.3 vars at 5 amps dictates 28.86 volts across the inductance, and that divided by 5 amps = 5.772 ohms
250 watts at 5 amps dictates 50 volts across the resistance
and sure enough, that makes a right triangle because √(50
2 + 28.86
2) = 57.73...
so I'm confident enough to continue
Writing KVL around primary
we find
##V1 = I1R1 + jωI1L1 -jw MI2## and we'll call that EQ(1)
and
and L2 = ##\frac{M^2}{k^2L1}##
Now
##I2 = Vsec / L2## EDIT make that ##I2 = Vsec / jωL2## and i forgot more jω's so added them in following lines , and i tried but latex won't let me make them red
and ##Vsec = jω MI1##
so ##I2 = jωMI1 X \frac{k^2L1}{M^2}##
and voltage source jωMI2 has amplitude ## \frac{jωM⋅M⋅ I1⋅k^2L1}{M^2}## = ## jω k^2I1L1##, M's cancel fortunately
substituting that for last term of EQ(1)
##V1 = I1R1 + jωI1L1 -jw k^2I1L1##
##V1 = I1 X (R1 +jωL1 - k^2L1) ##
##\frac{V1}{I1} = R1 + jωL1 (1-k^2)##
AHA ! We know the right half of that equation is the impedance
looking at the reactance term
we know jωL1 is ##\sqrt{300} Ω## from OC test, and that's 17.32
and from SC test ## jωL1 (1-k^2) = 5.772 Ω ##
so
##jωL1(1-k^2) = 5.772##
divided by
##jωL1 = 17.32##
yields
##1-k^2 = \frac{5.772}{17.32} = 0.3332##
##k^2 = 0.6667##
##k = 0.8165##
##L2 = \frac{M^2}{k^2L1}##
##L2 = \frac{ 0,03183 ^2 }{0.6667 X 0.05513 } = 0.02756 Henry ##
##jωL2 = 0.02756 X 100π = 8.658 Ω##
##I2 = \frac{jwMI1}{jωL2} = \frac{50}{8.658} = 5.775 amps##
gotta be a silly arithmetic mistake in there someplace
as you guys know I'm a plodder
but i think that algorithm is viable
i'd like to go back and work it with a couple more digits in author's Pq vars
Had he given us 144.33756267.. vars for Pq, just 0,0375 more ,, he'd have hit 30 degrees exactly. That's why i think it got truncated.
We'd then have 288.67 VA (500/√3) and a 30-60-90 triangle
and he'd have shifted from 60-30-90 to 60 30-60-90 impedance triangles by shorting the secondary, which sounds like something i'd do if tinkering with trig .
that way it'd have nice even 1-2-√3 Pythagorean related arguments for all those impedances, voltages and currents which would just seem elegant.
but 'm Latex-ed out for now.
and @@**()*&^&^%$ latex just quit showing in preview so i hope the jw's are right now
find my mistakes ?old jim