- #1
binbagsss
- 1,269
- 11
So a particle has intrinsic parity ##\pm 1 ## .
The parity of a system of particles is given by product of intrinsic parities and the result is: ##(-1)^l ## (1).
Questions:
1) How does this result follow?
and what exactly is ##l## here? so it's the orbital angular momentum, so say a particle is made up of 3 quarks, then it's described to be in a certain state, ##1p## , ##1s## states etc, so ##l## is the orbital angular momentum of this state?
2) For a meson ##p=(-1)^{l+1}##
The reasoning in my book being that the quark and antiquark have opposite intrinsic parities,
So I assume this followss from (1), although I am not seeing how??
But, in the result (1) , this is a general result for any system of particles right? So quarks and antiquarks of the same type could be included in any system yet ## (-1)^l ## still holds?Thanks in advance.
The parity of a system of particles is given by product of intrinsic parities and the result is: ##(-1)^l ## (1).
Questions:
1) How does this result follow?
and what exactly is ##l## here? so it's the orbital angular momentum, so say a particle is made up of 3 quarks, then it's described to be in a certain state, ##1p## , ##1s## states etc, so ##l## is the orbital angular momentum of this state?
2) For a meson ##p=(-1)^{l+1}##
The reasoning in my book being that the quark and antiquark have opposite intrinsic parities,
So I assume this followss from (1), although I am not seeing how??
But, in the result (1) , this is a general result for any system of particles right? So quarks and antiquarks of the same type could be included in any system yet ## (-1)^l ## still holds?Thanks in advance.