Please explain gauge invariance un-mathmatically

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Gauge invariance refers to the ability to transform fields without altering physical outcomes, exemplified in classical electrodynamics where different gauge choices yield the same equations. This concept allows for the elimination of unphysical components of fields, such as the timelike polarization of massless vector bosons, by applying gauge fixing conditions. The discussion highlights that gauge invariance is fundamentally about convenience and the naming of equivalent physical situations, akin to different counting systems for floors in a building. It emphasizes that while gauge transformations can simplify problems, a deeper understanding, particularly regarding massless vector bosons, requires more advanced mathematical frameworks. Overall, gauge invariance is a crucial principle in theoretical physics that streamlines the analysis of physical systems.
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please explain what gauge symmetry is, gauge transformation is, gauge invariance is, and also how gauge invariance deletes the timelike polarization of a massless vector boson. without fancy math and formulas.
 
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Gauge invariance has to do with making a transformation of your fields, going to another gauge, without changing anything physically interesting (eg changing a phase).
This for example is known from the classical electrodynamics where you had the freedom to choose different gauges (Lorentz, Coulomb etc) and the equations that you had to solve did not change. The eg \partial_\mu A^\mu=0 (Lorentz) . If for example you had found a solution to your electrodynamic problem, let's say A^\mu, then you can also find that A^\mu + \partial^\mu K would be a solution of the same equations (K has to be harmonic function). The gauge condition (gauge fixing) is the equation \partial_\mu A^\mu=0 which "fixes" the gauge by applying an additional condition:
\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t} + \vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{A} =0 (so you can get rid of one of the components of A^\mu by choosing an appropriate gauge /they are unphysical components and depend on your gauge choice).

For more, you'd better take a particle physics course when you will be ready to do it.

[Mentor's note: Edited to remove a digression referring to another thread]
 
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Gauge invariance means we call the same thing by more than one name.

As a simple example, water always falls down, or one can say that water falls from higher to lower heights. So for example, water falls from the 5th floor to the 4th floor. But what is the "5th floor"? Well, it depends. In the US, people start counting from 1, but in some other countries people start counting from 0 or the ground floor. So the 5th floor in the US is the same as the 4th floor in another counting method - in other words, we call the same thing by more than one name.

What is the "same thing"? Whether you say water falls from "5 to 4" or from "4 to 3", what is the same is that it falls in the "-1 direction", where we take the final floor minus the initial floor to be the meaning of the word "direction". But obviously it is easier to say "5 to 4", once we have fixed that we count from 1. So gauge invariance is a matter of convenience.

Gauge invariance can delete "degrees of freedom" because if initially there appear to be two things like "5 to 4" and "4 to 3", by saying that two things are only different names for one thing, we have in some sense deleted "degrees of freedom".
 
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ChrisVer said:
writing two threads with the same question cannot help...
Gauge invariance has to do with making a transformation of your fields, going to another gauge, without changing anything physically interesting (eg changing a phase).
This for example is known from the classical electrodynamics where you had the freedom to choose different gauges (Lorentz, Coulomb etc) and the equations that you had to solve did not change. The eg \partial_\mu A^\mu=0 (Lorentz) . If for example you had found a solution to your electrodynamic problem, let's say A^\mu, then you can also find that A^\mu + \partial^\mu K would be a solution of the same equations (K has to be harmonic function). The gauge condition (gauge fixing) is the equation \partial_\mu A^\mu=0 which "fixes" the gauge by applying an additional condition:
\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t} + \vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{A} =0 (so you can get rid of one of the components of A^\mu by choosing an appropriate gauge /they are unphysical components and depend on your gauge choice).

For more, you'd better take a particle physics course when you will be ready to do it.
thanks
 
atyy said:
Gauge invariance means we call the same thing by more than one name.

As a simple example, water always falls down, or one can say that water falls from higher to lower heights. So for example, water falls from the 5th floor to the 4th floor. But what is the "5th floor"? Well, it depends. In the US, people start counting from 1, but in some other countries people start counting from 0 or the ground floor. So the 5th floor in the US is the same as the 4th floor in another counting method - in other words, we call the same thing by more than one name.

What is the "same thing"? Whether you say water falls from "5 to 4" or from "4 to 3", what is the same is that it falls in the "-1 direction", where we take the final floor minus the initial floor to be the meaning of the word "direction". But obviously it is easier to say "5 to 4", once we have fixed that we count from 1. So gauge invariance is a matter of convenience.

Gauge invariance can delete "degrees of freedom" because if initially there appear to be two things like "5 to 4" and "4 to 3", by saying that two things are only different names for one thing, we have in some sense deleted "degrees of freedom".
thank you too
 
kimcj said:
please explain what gauge symmetry is, gauge transformation is, gauge invariance is
Atyy and ChrisVer have done a pretty decent job at that above...
and also how gauge invariance deletes the timelike polarization of a massless vector boson. without fancy math and formulas.
... But that we can't help you with. We need the "fancy math and formulas" to even have an honest notion of what a massless vector boson is.
 
I think it's easist first to watch a short vidio clip I find these videos very relaxing to watch .. I got to thinking is this being done in the most efficient way? The sand has to be suspended in the water to move it to the outlet ... The faster the water , the more turbulance and the sand stays suspended, so it seems to me the rule of thumb is the hose be aimed towards the outlet at all times .. Many times the workers hit the sand directly which will greatly reduce the water...
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