Prime and Maximal Ideals in PIDs .... Rotman, AMA Theorem 5.12

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on understanding Theorem 5.12 from Joseph J. Rotman's "Advanced Modern Algebra," specifically regarding prime ideals and maximal ideals in Principal Ideal Domains (PIDs). The theorem states that if \( (p) \subseteq J = (a) \), then \( a|p \) implies either \( a \) and \( p \) are associates or \( a \) is a unit. Participants clarify that if \( p \) is irreducible, then \( a|p \) leads to the conclusion that either \( a \) is a unit or \( a \) and \( p \) are associates, reinforcing the properties of prime ideals in PIDs.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Principal Ideal Domains (PIDs)
  • Familiarity with prime and maximal ideals
  • Knowledge of irreducible elements in ring theory
  • Basic concepts of equivalence relations in algebra
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of irreducible elements in PIDs
  • Learn about the structure of prime and maximal ideals in commutative rings
  • Explore the concept of associates and units in ring theory
  • Review proofs related to Theorem 5.12 in Rotman's "Advanced Modern Algebra"
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for graduate students in mathematics, algebraists, and anyone studying ring theory, particularly those focusing on the properties of ideals in Principal Ideal Domains.

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I am reading Joseph J. Rotman's book: Advanced Modern Algebra (AMA) and I am currently focused on Section 5.1 Prime Ideals and Maximal Ideals ...

I need some help with understanding the proof of Theorem 5.12 ... ...Theorem 5.12 reads as follows:View attachment 5940
In the above text Rotman writes the following:" ... ... If $$(p) \subseteq J = (a)$$, then $$a|p$$. Hence either $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates, in which case $$(a) = (p)$$, or $$a$$ is a unit, in which case $$J = (a) = R$$. ... ... ... "My question is as follows:Rotman argues, (as I interpret his argument), that $$a|p$$ implies that either $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates ... or ... $$a$$ is a unit ...Can someone please explain (slowly and clearly :) ) why this is the case ... ... ?Hope someone can help ... ...

Peter
 
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Peter said:
I am reading Joseph J. Rotman's book: Advanced Modern Algebra (AMA) and I am currently focused on Section 5.1 Prime Ideals and Maximal Ideals ...

I need some help with understanding the proof of Theorem 5.12 ... ...Theorem 5.12 reads as follows:
In the above text Rotman writes the following:" ... ... If $$(p) \subseteq J = (a)$$, then $$a|p$$. Hence either $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates, in which case $$(a) = (p)$$, or $$a$$ is a unit, in which case $$J = (a) = R$$. ... ... ... "My question is as follows:Rotman argues, (as I interpret his argument), that $$a|p$$ implies that either $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates ... or ... $$a$$ is a unit ...Can someone please explain (slowly and clearly :) ) why this is the case ... ... ?Hope someone can help ... ...

Peter

I have been reflecting on my question and believe the answer is something like the following:Firstly ... we are given that $$p$$ is irreducible ...

Now ... $$p$$ irreducible

$$\Longrightarrow p$$ is non-zero and $$p$$ not a unit ... and ... where $$p$$ equals a product,

say, $$p = ra$$ ... then one of $$a$$ and $$r$$ is a unit ... Now, $$a|p \Longrightarrow p = ra$$ for some $$r \in R$$

So then we have that:

$$p$$ irreducible and $$p = ra \Longrightarrow$$ one of $$a$$ and $$r$$ is a unit ...

If $$r$$ is a unit then $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates ... ...

... otherwise $$a$$ is a unit ...
Can someone confirm that this is correct ... or alternatively point out shortcomings and errors in the analysis ...

Peter
 
I have this solution for you.

First, a notation:
$a\sim b$ for $a,b\in R$ iff $a$ and $b$ are associates iff there is a unit $u\in R$ such that $a=ub$.
$\sim$ is an equivalence relation.

R is a PID and commutative.
Given $a\mid p$ and $(p)$ is an prime ideal. And you want to prove that $a\sim p$ or $a\sim 1$ ($a$ is a unit).

$a\mid p$, so there is a $x\in R$ such that $p=xa$, this means that $xa\in (p)$.
$(p)$ is a prime ideal thus (1) $a\in (p)$ or (2) $x\in (p)$

Suppose (1) $a\in (p)$, then there is an $r\in R$ such that $a=rp$.
Then $p=xrp$, and because $R$ is a domain, $xr=1$, i.e., $x$ is a unit and $a\sim p$.

Suppose (2) $x\in (p)$, then there is an $s\in R$ such that $x=sp$.
Then $p=asp$, and because $R$ is a domain, $as=1$, i.e., $a$ is a unit and $a\sim 1$ $\Box$

You fill in the rest of the proof.
 
steenis said:
I have this solution for you.

First, a notation:
$a\sim b$ for $a,b\in R$ iff $a$ and $b$ are associates iff there is a unit $u\in R$ such that $a=ub$.
$\sim$ is an equivalence relation.

R is a PID and commutative.
Given $a\mid p$ and $(p)$ is an prime ideal. And you want to prove that $a\sim p$ or $a\sim 1$ ($a$ is a unit).

$a\mid p$, so there is a $x\in R$ such that $p=xa$, this means that $xa\in (p)$.
$(p)$ is a prime ideal thus (1) $a\in (p)$ or (2) $x\in (p)$

Suppose (1) $a\in (p)$, then there is an $r\in R$ such that $a=rp$.
Then $p=xrp$, and because $R$ is a domain, $xr=1$, i.e., $x$ is a unit and $a\sim p$.

Suppose (2) $x\in (p)$, then there is an $s\in R$ such that $x=sp$.
Then $p=asp$, and because $R$ is a domain, $as=1$, i.e., $a$ is a unit and $a\sim 1$ $\Box$

You fill in the rest of the proof.
Thanks Steenis ... appreciate your help ...

Just working through your post now ...

Peter
 

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