Prime and Maximal Ideals in PIDs .... Rotman, AMA Theorem 5.12

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding the proof of Theorem 5.12 from Joseph J. Rotman's "Advanced Modern Algebra," specifically focusing on the implications of the relationship between prime ideals and maximal ideals in Principal Ideal Domains (PIDs). Participants are seeking clarification on the reasoning behind certain statements made in the theorem regarding irreducible elements and their properties.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Peter questions why the implication $$a|p$$ leads to either $$a$$ and $$p$$ being associates or $$a$$ being a unit.
  • Peter reflects on the irreducibility of $$p$$ and suggests that if $$p$$ can be expressed as a product $$p = ra$$, then one of $$a$$ or $$r$$ must be a unit.
  • Another participant provides a structured proof, stating that if $$a|p$$, then either $$a$$ is in the ideal generated by $$p$$ or the element $$x$$ (from $$p = xa$$) is in that ideal, leading to two cases that either establish $$a$$ as a unit or show that $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates.
  • The proof provided includes the notation for associates and emphasizes the properties of PIDs and prime ideals.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants are engaged in a detailed exploration of the theorem, with some providing solutions and others seeking clarification. There is no clear consensus on the understanding of the proof, as participants are still discussing and refining their interpretations.

Contextual Notes

The discussion involves assumptions about the properties of irreducible elements and the structure of PIDs, which may not be fully articulated by all participants. The proof steps provided are contingent on the definitions and properties of ideals in the context of commutative algebra.

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I am reading Joseph J. Rotman's book: Advanced Modern Algebra (AMA) and I am currently focused on Section 5.1 Prime Ideals and Maximal Ideals ...

I need some help with understanding the proof of Theorem 5.12 ... ...Theorem 5.12 reads as follows:View attachment 5940
In the above text Rotman writes the following:" ... ... If $$(p) \subseteq J = (a)$$, then $$a|p$$. Hence either $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates, in which case $$(a) = (p)$$, or $$a$$ is a unit, in which case $$J = (a) = R$$. ... ... ... "My question is as follows:Rotman argues, (as I interpret his argument), that $$a|p$$ implies that either $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates ... or ... $$a$$ is a unit ...Can someone please explain (slowly and clearly :) ) why this is the case ... ... ?Hope someone can help ... ...

Peter
 
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Peter said:
I am reading Joseph J. Rotman's book: Advanced Modern Algebra (AMA) and I am currently focused on Section 5.1 Prime Ideals and Maximal Ideals ...

I need some help with understanding the proof of Theorem 5.12 ... ...Theorem 5.12 reads as follows:
In the above text Rotman writes the following:" ... ... If $$(p) \subseteq J = (a)$$, then $$a|p$$. Hence either $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates, in which case $$(a) = (p)$$, or $$a$$ is a unit, in which case $$J = (a) = R$$. ... ... ... "My question is as follows:Rotman argues, (as I interpret his argument), that $$a|p$$ implies that either $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates ... or ... $$a$$ is a unit ...Can someone please explain (slowly and clearly :) ) why this is the case ... ... ?Hope someone can help ... ...

Peter

I have been reflecting on my question and believe the answer is something like the following:Firstly ... we are given that $$p$$ is irreducible ...

Now ... $$p$$ irreducible

$$\Longrightarrow p$$ is non-zero and $$p$$ not a unit ... and ... where $$p$$ equals a product,

say, $$p = ra$$ ... then one of $$a$$ and $$r$$ is a unit ... Now, $$a|p \Longrightarrow p = ra$$ for some $$r \in R$$

So then we have that:

$$p$$ irreducible and $$p = ra \Longrightarrow$$ one of $$a$$ and $$r$$ is a unit ...

If $$r$$ is a unit then $$a$$ and $$p$$ are associates ... ...

... otherwise $$a$$ is a unit ...
Can someone confirm that this is correct ... or alternatively point out shortcomings and errors in the analysis ...

Peter
 
I have this solution for you.

First, a notation:
$a\sim b$ for $a,b\in R$ iff $a$ and $b$ are associates iff there is a unit $u\in R$ such that $a=ub$.
$\sim$ is an equivalence relation.

R is a PID and commutative.
Given $a\mid p$ and $(p)$ is an prime ideal. And you want to prove that $a\sim p$ or $a\sim 1$ ($a$ is a unit).

$a\mid p$, so there is a $x\in R$ such that $p=xa$, this means that $xa\in (p)$.
$(p)$ is a prime ideal thus (1) $a\in (p)$ or (2) $x\in (p)$

Suppose (1) $a\in (p)$, then there is an $r\in R$ such that $a=rp$.
Then $p=xrp$, and because $R$ is a domain, $xr=1$, i.e., $x$ is a unit and $a\sim p$.

Suppose (2) $x\in (p)$, then there is an $s\in R$ such that $x=sp$.
Then $p=asp$, and because $R$ is a domain, $as=1$, i.e., $a$ is a unit and $a\sim 1$ $\Box$

You fill in the rest of the proof.
 
steenis said:
I have this solution for you.

First, a notation:
$a\sim b$ for $a,b\in R$ iff $a$ and $b$ are associates iff there is a unit $u\in R$ such that $a=ub$.
$\sim$ is an equivalence relation.

R is a PID and commutative.
Given $a\mid p$ and $(p)$ is an prime ideal. And you want to prove that $a\sim p$ or $a\sim 1$ ($a$ is a unit).

$a\mid p$, so there is a $x\in R$ such that $p=xa$, this means that $xa\in (p)$.
$(p)$ is a prime ideal thus (1) $a\in (p)$ or (2) $x\in (p)$

Suppose (1) $a\in (p)$, then there is an $r\in R$ such that $a=rp$.
Then $p=xrp$, and because $R$ is a domain, $xr=1$, i.e., $x$ is a unit and $a\sim p$.

Suppose (2) $x\in (p)$, then there is an $s\in R$ such that $x=sp$.
Then $p=asp$, and because $R$ is a domain, $as=1$, i.e., $a$ is a unit and $a\sim 1$ $\Box$

You fill in the rest of the proof.
Thanks Steenis ... appreciate your help ...

Just working through your post now ...

Peter
 

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