Proof with natural numbers and sequences of functions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the convergence of a sequence \( g(n) \) based on the behavior of a function \( f(i,n) \) defined on natural numbers. The original poster presents a statement involving epsilon-delta definitions of convergence and seeks clarification on the implications of the conditions provided.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants express uncertainty about how to approach the proof, particularly regarding the implications of working within the domain of natural numbers rather than real numbers. Some suggest using the Cauchy criterion for convergence as a potential method to demonstrate that \( g(n) \) is a Cauchy sequence.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively questioning the meaning of the fixed index \( i \) in relation to the convergence of \( f(i,n) \). There is a discussion about whether this implies pointwise convergence and how it relates to uniform convergence. Some participants are exploring the structure of the proof and the relationships between the sequences involved.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted confusion regarding the definitions and properties of convergence in the context of sequences of functions, particularly in relation to pointwise and uniform convergence. Participants are considering the implications of the problem's constraints and definitions.

davitykale
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Homework Statement


For every epsilon > 0, there exists an N\in N such that, for every j >= N, |f(i,n) - g(n)|<epsilon for every n\in N. In addition, for every fixed j\in N, (f(i,n)) converges. Prove that (g(n)) converges.


Homework Equations


f: N x N --> R, g: N --> R


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not sure what to do, especially since we're dealing with domains of N and not R...
 
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davitykale said:

Homework Statement


For every epsilon > 0, there exists an N\in N such that, for every j >= N, |f(i,n) - g(n)|<epsilon for every n\in N. In addition, for every fixed j\in N, (f(i,n)) converges. Prove that (g(n)) converges.


Homework Equations


f: N x N --> R, g: N --> R


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not sure what to do, especially since we're dealing with domains of N and not R...

Do you know about the Cauchy criteria for a sequence to be convergent? Prove g is a cauchy sequence by getting the fi near it and using the fact that they are Cauchy.
 
Does the "fixed i\in N" imply that f(i,n) converges pointwise? I only know the cauchy criterion for uniform convergence
 
davitykale said:
Does the "fixed i\in N" imply that f(i,n) converges pointwise? I only know the cauchy criterion for uniform convergence

I prefer the notation fi(n). For each i, fi is a function on the integers, that is, a sequence. It doesn't make sense to talk about fi converging pointwise for a given i. For each i, {fi(n)} is a convergent sequence. For example, f1 might be the sequence:


f1(1) = 1
f1(2) = 1/2
f1(3) = 1/4
f1(4) = 1/8
...
f1(2) = 1/2n

which is a convergent sequence.

What does make sense is to say fi → g pointwise and you might ask yourself whether fi → g uniformly on N, given the statement of the problem.
 
Is this something like what you meant:

|f(i,n)−f(i,m)| = |f (i, n) − g(n) + g(n) − g(m) + g(m) − f (i, m)|
≤ |f (i, n) − g(n)| + |g(n) − g(m)| + |g(m) − f (i, m)|

Or does what I'm doing make any sense at all in terms of solving the problem?
 

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