Properties of a unitary matrix

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the properties of a unitary matrix, specifically the scattering matrix (S-matrix) in quantum mechanics. It establishes that the S-matrix can be defined through wave functions and demonstrates the relationship between S(-p) and S†(p). The participants explore the proof of unitarity, emphasizing the conditions under which S* = S† and S* S = 1, while considering implications of time-reversal symmetry. The conversation highlights the need for a rigorous definition of S(p) and its dependence on momentum.

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  • Familiarity with unitary matrices and their properties
  • Knowledge of time-reversal symmetry in physics
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JHansen
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TL;DR
Want to show that ##S(-p) =S^\dagger (p)##.
So let's say that we have som unitary matrix, ##S##. Let that unitary matrix be the scattering matrix in quantum mechanics or the "S-matrix".

Now we all know that it can be defined in the following way:
$$\psi(x) = Ae^{ipx} + Be^{-ipx}, x<<0$$ and $$ \psi(x) = Ce^{ipx} + De^{-ipx}$$.
Now, A and D cmpts. are the ongoing waves and B & C the outgoing ones. So we can define the S-matrix by.

$$
\begin{pmatrix}
C\\
B
\end{pmatrix} =
\begin{pmatrix}
S_{11}& S_{12}\\
S_{21}& S_{22}
\end{pmatrix}
\begin{pmatrix}
A\\
D
\end{pmatrix}
$$.

Now, of course, we can show that the matrix is unitary via the probability current density (or time-reversal symmetry I think?). Anyway,how would I actually show that ##S(-p) = S^\dagger (p)## ? hmmHere are my thoughts. We notice that letting p -> -p in the wave functions is the same thing as letting i-> -i, i.e. taking the complex conjugate. So what remains to show is that ##S^* = S^\dagger##, or that ##S^* S = 1## as well. And this can be achieved via time-reversal symmetry. But maybe this restricts our potential to be real?I would like something more rigorous to be more certain.
 
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What is the definition of S(p)?
I can see what is an operator depending on time. is it a field of operators on a vector space?
 
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So I just think p is the momenta. Sorry but I don't have a rigorous definition so I don't really know. But I can prove it with my argument if I assume that A,B,C,D are all real which I'm not certain they are.
 
If the amplitude given by the scalar product <p1|S|p2> only depends on p2-p1 we can write it S(p2-p1). Is it the case here?
 
Last edited:

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