Prove f is constant - liouville's theorem (?)

  • Thread starter Thread starter jinsing
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Constant Theorem
jinsing
Messages
29
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Let f=u+iv, where u(z)>v(z) for all z in the complex plane. Show that f is constant on C.


Homework Equations



none

The Attempt at a Solution



Here's my attempt (just a sketch):

Since f is entire, then its components u(z), v(z) are also entire <- is this necessarily true?

Since f is entire, the CR equations hold.

v(z) is bounded for all z, so since v is entire and bounded, by liouville's theorem v is constant. <- kinda shaky on this one, too.

Since CR equations hold, we know v_y = u_x = 0 and -v_x = u_y = 0.

So, f' = u_x - iu_y = 0, so f is constant.

Does this seem okay.. or am I way off base?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I hate to be this guy.. but does this look okay? I still need help..
 
Don't know if you have Little Picard at your disposal, but that would be the route that I would take.

It is not true that ##u## and ##v## are entire. They are real analytic, though. Liouville doesn't apply.

Even if ##v## were entire, it isn't bounded.
 
No, this doesn't look okay at all. In general, neither the real nor imaginary parts of a holomorphic function are themselves holomorphic. In fact, it's not difficult to show that they cannot be holomorphic unless f is constant (basically, note that both u and v are real-valued, and apply the open mapping theorem).

As for this problem, the way I would go about it is by looking at the function g(z) = 1/(f(z) - i).
 
gopher p: no I can't use Little Picard, unfortunately. I looked it up, though, and it did seem pretty helpful! Thanks for the suggestion!

Citan Uzuki: yeah, that's what I thought.. my method definitely seemed a tad suspicious to me. I don't quite understand how 1/(f(z)-i) would help.. could you please elaborate a little more?

Thank you so much, so far!
 
Or, rather, how'd you get 1/(f(z)-i)?
 
jinsing said:
Or, rather, how'd you get 1/(f(z)-i)?

If u(z)>v(z) then f(z)=u+iv only has values in half of the complex plane. Sketch the region. i isn't in that region. So |f(z)-i| has a lower bound. Is that enough of a hint?
 
That's perfect. Thank you very much you guys!
 
Back
Top