Prove f is not piecewise continuous on [-1,1]

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves demonstrating that the function f(x) = x sgn(sin(1/x)) for x ≠ 0 and f(0) = 0 is not piecewise continuous on the interval I = [-1, 1]. The discussion also touches on the integrability of f on the same interval.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the potential approach of partitioning the interval to exclude x = 0, questioning whether continuity can be shown on subintervals while noting the behavior of sin(1/x) as x approaches zero. Others suggest that the frequent sign changes of sin(1/x) as x approaches zero indicate that piecewise continuity may not hold, proposing a contradiction based on the nature of discontinuities.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring various lines of reasoning regarding the continuity of f and the implications of the behavior of sin(1/x). Some have offered insights into the nature of discontinuities and how they relate to the definition of piecewise continuity, while others are still seeking clarity on the best approach to take.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the behavior of sin(1/x) near zero, with participants noting that the function may be discontinuous at infinitely many points, which challenges the definition of piecewise continuity. The original poster expresses uncertainty about how to proceed with the proof.

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Homework Statement



Let f(x) = x sgn(sin(1/x)) if x != 0
f(x) = 0 if x = 0
on the interval I=[-1,1]

Now I 'm asked to show that f(x) is not piecewise continuous on I and later, I must show that f is integrable on I.


The Attempt at a Solution



I am completely lost here and don't know how to proceed...
I think we should first divide the partition in some regular subpartitions so that x=0 is excluded (the only possible discontinuity?):
P1=[-1, -e/100] and P2=[e/100, 1], and then try to show that continuity on the interval P3=[-e/100, e/100] is impossible but that we still have uniform continuity on P1 and P2?
Should I be looking in that direction? Or should I look at it in a complete different way?

Thank you for the help!
 
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Intuitively, it is not piecewise continuous because sin(1/x) changes sign arbitrarily often as you let x tend to zero (1/x grows without bound, so there is always an x arbitrarily close for which the sign of the sine has flipped).

So maybe you can use this for a rigorous proof. For example, suppose that sin(1/x) is piecewise continuous. Then you can list all points of discontinuity and there are finitely many, for example x1 < x2 < ... < xn.
If you can show that there must be some 0 < x0 < x1, such that sin(1/x0) has a sign opposite from sin(1/x1), you are done (you have listed them all, and found another one, which is a contradiction).
 
I assume you mean the sign function
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sign_function

your function will be discontinous everytime sin(1/x) = 0, or when 1/x = n.pi,

so when x = 1/(n.pi)

if you definition for piecewise continuous contains discontinuous at only finitely many discontinuities, it sould be easy to show this is contradicted
 
right, so just like Compuchip said ;)
 
Thank you very much for your help guys!
 

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