danago
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Prove that if U and V are subspaces of Rn, then so is U \cap V. Show by example that U \cup V is not necessarily a subspace of Rn.
For the first part i can see that elements of U \cap V are elements of both subspaces U and V. If i take any two element from U \cap V and form some linear combination, then it must lie within U (since the elements are in U and U is a subspace) and it must also lie within V (since the elements are in V and V is a subspace), hence, U \cap V is also a subspace.
Thats what i would have called informal reasoning. How can i actually prove that this is the case? Is my reasoning enough to stand as a solid proof?
For the second part i didnt have any troubles. I just defined:
<br /> \begin{array}{l}<br /> U = \{ k\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right)|k \in R\} \\ <br /> V = \{ k\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 0 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right)|k \in R\} \\ <br /> U \cup V = \{ a\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right),b\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 0 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right)|a,b \in R\} \\ <br /> \end{array}<br />
I then chose two elements from the union of U and V and formed a linear combination which was not an element of the union of U and V, hence U and V is not a subspace.
<br /> \begin{array}{l}<br /> \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 0 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right),\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) \in U \cup V \\ <br /> \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 0 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) + \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) = \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 2 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) \notin U \cup V \\ <br /> \end{array}<br />
I think that's the way to go about it, so its really just the first part i needed a bit of help with.
Thanks,
Dan.
For the first part i can see that elements of U \cap V are elements of both subspaces U and V. If i take any two element from U \cap V and form some linear combination, then it must lie within U (since the elements are in U and U is a subspace) and it must also lie within V (since the elements are in V and V is a subspace), hence, U \cap V is also a subspace.
Thats what i would have called informal reasoning. How can i actually prove that this is the case? Is my reasoning enough to stand as a solid proof?
For the second part i didnt have any troubles. I just defined:
<br /> \begin{array}{l}<br /> U = \{ k\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right)|k \in R\} \\ <br /> V = \{ k\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 0 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right)|k \in R\} \\ <br /> U \cup V = \{ a\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right),b\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 0 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right)|a,b \in R\} \\ <br /> \end{array}<br />
I then chose two elements from the union of U and V and formed a linear combination which was not an element of the union of U and V, hence U and V is not a subspace.
<br /> \begin{array}{l}<br /> \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 0 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right),\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) \in U \cup V \\ <br /> \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 0 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) + \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) = \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 2 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) \notin U \cup V \\ <br /> \end{array}<br />
I think that's the way to go about it, so its really just the first part i needed a bit of help with.
Thanks,
Dan.