Prove the Integral: $$\frac{-\pi}{4}$$

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the integral $$ \int_0^\infty \frac{\log x}{(1+x^2)^2}dx = \frac{-\pi}{4}$$. Participants explore various methods of evaluation, including series expansions, substitutions, and potential applications of complex path integration.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose splitting the integral into two parts to simplify the evaluation, specifically separating the interval from 0 to 1 and from 1 to infinity.
  • One participant mentions using a series expansion for $$ \frac{1}{(1+x^{2})^{2}} $$, suggesting that it can be expressed as a power series for |x|<1.
  • Another participant introduces the result $$ \int_{0}^{1} x^{n}\ \ln x\ dx = - \frac{1}{(n+1)^{2}} $$ as a useful tool in the evaluation process.
  • One participant outlines a method involving the beta function and differentiation with respect to a parameter to derive the integral's value, leading to the same conclusion of $$ -\frac{\pi}{4} $$.
  • There is a repeated inquiry about the possibility of obtaining the same result using complex path integration, with some expressing belief that it is feasible under certain definitions of the complex logarithm.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

While several participants arrive at the same conclusion regarding the value of the integral, the methods and approaches to reach that conclusion vary, indicating that multiple competing views and techniques remain in the discussion.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference specific mathematical techniques and results, but the discussion does not resolve the potential complexities or assumptions involved in using complex analysis or the definitions of logarithmic functions in that context.

The Lord
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Prove that

$$ \int_0^\infty \frac{\log x}{(1+x^2)^2}dx = \frac{-\pi}{4}$$
 
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The Lord said:
Prove that

$$ \int_0^\infty \frac{\log x}{(1+x^2)^2}dx = \frac{-\pi}{4}$$

First step may be to split the integral in two parts...

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln x}{(1+x^{2})^{2}}\ dx = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln x}{(1+x^{2})^{2}}\ dx + \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{\ln x}{(1+x^{2})^{2}}\ dx = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln x}{(1+x^{2})^{2}}\ dx - \int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^{2}\ \ln x}{(1+x^{2})^{2}}\ dx$ (1)

The second step is to remember the series expansion which holds for |x|<1...

$\displaystyle \frac{1}{(1+x^{2})^{2}} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^{n}\ (n+1)\ x^{2n}$ (2)

The third step is the following result I found some year ago... $\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} x^{n}\ \ln x\ dx = - \frac{1}{(n+1)^{2}}$

Combining all these result we obtain...

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln x}{(1+x^{2})^{2}}\ dx = - \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^{n}\ \{\frac{1}{2n+1} - \frac{n}{(2n+1)^{2}} + \frac{n+2}{(2n + 3)^{2}} \} = - \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2n+1} = - \frac{\pi}{4}$ (3)

An interesting question : it is possible to obtain the same result using complex path integration?... in my opinion the answer is yes... but if we adopt the exact definition of the complex logarithm...Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
I will start by the integral :

\int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{x^a}{(1+x^2)^2}\, dx

Now use the following substitution : x^2= t\frac{1}{2}\int^{\infty}_{0}\frac{t^{\frac{a-1}{2}}}{(1+t)^2}\, dtBy the beta function this is equivalent to : \frac{1}{2}\int^{\infty}_{0}\frac{t^{\frac{a-1}{2}}}{(1+t)^2}\, dt = \frac{1}{2}B\left(\frac{a+1}{2},2-\frac{a+1}{2}\right)=\frac{1}{2}\Gamma\left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right) \Gamma\left(2-\frac{a+1}{2}\right)

Now let the following : F(a) =\frac{1}{2}\int^{\infty}_{0}\frac{t^{\frac{a-1}{2}}}{(1+t)^2}\, dt =\frac{1}{2}\Gamma\left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right)\Gamma\left(2-\frac{a+1}{2}\right)Differentiate with respect to a :F&#039;(a) =\frac{1}{4}\int^{\infty}_{0}\frac{\log(t) \,t^{\frac{a-1}{2}}}{(1+t)^2}\, dt =\frac{1}{4}\Gamma\left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right)\Gamma \left(2-\frac{a+1}{2}\right)\left[\psi \left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right)-\psi \left(2-\frac{a+1}{2}\right) \right]Now put a =0 and use \psi(x+1)=\psi(x)+\frac{1}{x}

\frac{1}{4}\int^{\infty}_{0}\frac{\log(t) \,t^{\frac{-1}{2}}}{(1+t)^2}\, dt =\frac{1}{4}\Gamma \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\Gamma \left(\frac{3}{2}\right)\left[\psi \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)-\psi \left(\frac{3}{2}\right)\right]=-\frac{\pi}{4}putting x^2= t we have our result :\int^{\infty}_{0}\frac{\log(x) }{(1+x^2)^2}\, dx=-\frac{\pi}{4}
 
chisigma said:
An interesting question : it is possible to obtain the same result using complex path integration?... in my opinion the answer is yes... but if we adopt the exact definition of the complex logarithm...Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

Of course , but it is pretty tedious ...
 

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