Proving a formula for # of edges

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Homework Statement


If ##v## is an integer greater than or equal to ##2##, then ##P_v## is the graph having vertex set ##\{1,2,3, \dots, v \}## and edge set ##\{\{1,2 \}, \{2,3 \}, \{3,4 \}, \dots, \{v-1,v \} \}##. Prove that this graph has ##v-1## edges.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Induction:
With ##P_2##, we have ##\{1,2\}## and ##\{ \{1,2\} \}##, so there is ##2-1 = 1## edge.
Suppose that ##P_k## has ##k-1## edges. Then ##P_{k+1}## has ##k## edges because its edge set is ##\{\{1,2 \}, \{2,3 \}, \{3,4 \}, \dots, \{k-1,k \}, \{k,k+1\} \}##.I feel like I'm doing something wrong, but I'm not sure. Is this induction right? Is there a way to do it without induction?
 
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Mr Davis 97 said:

Homework Statement


If ##v## is an integer greater than or equal to ##2##, then ##P_v## is the graph having vertex set ##\{1,2,3, \dots, v \}## and edge set ##\{\{1,2 \}, \{2,3 \}, \{3,4 \}, \dots, \{v-1,v \} \}##. Prove that this graph has ##v-1## edges.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Induction:
With ##P_2##, we have ##\{1,2\}## and ##\{ \{1,2\} \}##, so there is ##2-1 = 1## edge.
Suppose that ##P_k## has ##k-1## edges. Then ##P_{k+1}## has ##k## edges because its edge set is ##\{\{1,2 \}, \{2,3 \}, \{3,4 \}, \dots, \{k-1,k \}, \{k,k+1\} \}##.I feel like I'm doing something wrong, but I'm not sure. Is this induction right? Is there a way to do it without induction?

It's fairly straightforward to see that the edge sets contains v-1 elements no? Doesn't this solve the question? I haven't done graph theory lately so I might be missing something.
 
Math_QED said:
It's fairly straightforward to see that the edge sets contains v-1 elements no? Doesn't this solve the question? I haven't done graph theory lately so I might be missing something.
It's straightforward to see, but don't I still need to prove it? I guess my main question then is since it is so self-evident, what would constitute a proof? Could I say, the cardinality of the edge set is clearly v-1?
 
Mr Davis 97 said:
It's straightforward to see, but don't I still need to prove it? I guess my main question then is since it is so self-evident, what would constitute a proof?

If you really want to, you can set up a natural bijection between the edge set ##\{\{i,i+1\}\mid i \in \{1, \dots, v-1\}\}## and ##\{1, \dots v-1\}##. But this seems overkill.

The statement is so obvious to me that I wouldn't even bother to give a proof.
 
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I don't get it. Haven't you already numbered all edges by the notation of the set? All edges are of the form ##\{\,i,i+1\,\}##. So if you formally define the numbering ##n : \{\,\{\,i,i+1\,\}\, : \,1\le i \le v-1\,\} \longrightarrow \{\,1,\ldots,v-1\,\}## by ##n(i) =min\{\,i,i+1\,\}## which is a bijection and ##\operatorname{im}n = \{\,1,\ldots,v-1\,\}## you have the result. But as @Math_QED already said: a bit of an overkill.
 
What about this: If ##v## is an integer greater than or equal to ##4##, ##W_v## is the graph having vertex set ##\{1,2,3, \dots, v \}## and edge set ##\{ \{1,2\}, \{1,3\}, \dots, \{1,v\}, \{2,3\}, \{3,4\}, \dots, \{v-1,v\}, \{v,2\} \}##. Prove this graph has ##2(v-1)## edges. How would I go about proving this? It seems a little less obvious...
 
Mr Davis 97 said:
What about this: If ##v## is an integer greater than or equal to ##4##, ##W_v## is the graph having vertex set ##\{1,2,3, \dots, v \}## and edge set ##\{ \{1,2\}, \{1,3\}, \dots, \{1,v\}, \{2,3\}, \{3,4\}, \dots, \{v-1,v\}, \{v,2\} \}##. Prove this graph has ##2(v-1)## edges. How would I go about proving this? It seems a little less obvious...
Formally also with a numbering. In this example it's only more work to do it, such that it's a bijection.
 
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fresh_42 said:
Formally also with a numbering. In this example it's only more work to do it, such that it's a bijection.
Could a sufficient proof be that, looking at the edge set, we have ##(v-1)+(v-2) +1 = 2(v-1)## elements?
 
Mr Davis 97 said:
Could a sufficient proof be that, looking at the edge set, we have ##(v-1)+(v-2) +1 = 2(v-1)## elements?

Yes, that's perfectly fine. I doubt an instructor would ever ask to set up a bijection when it is obvious as in this case.
 
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