Proving a function is not bijective

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In summary, the conversation discusses a function, f, defined as t+2t^2sin(1/t) that is not bijective in any neighborhood of 0. The attempted solution involves proving that the function is not injective, but the attempt is unsuccessful due to not taking into account the sign of the term t. The suggestion is to use the fact that the function is differentiable and the derivative can be used to show that the function is not monotone increasing or decreasing, thus proving that it is not bijective.
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mahler1
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Homework Statement .
Let ##f:\mathbb R \to \mathbb R## be the function defined as ##f(t)=t+2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})## if ##t≠0## and ##f(0)=0##. Prove that ##f## is not bijective in any neighbourhood of ##0##. The attempt at a solution.

I've tried to prove that is not injective. The only idea I had in mind (later I realized it was completely wrong) was to suppose there is a neighbourhood of ##0## where the function is bijective. Then, there is ##\epsilon>0## such that ##B(0,\epsilon) \subset U##. I considered ##t_1=(2k\pi)^{-1}## and ##t_2=(-2k\pi)^{-1}## with ##k \in \mathbb N## such that ##k>(2\pi\epsilon)^{-1}## (I can find such ##k## by the archimidean property of the natural numbers), then ##t_1## and ##t_2## are in ##U##.I did all that without considering that ##f=t+2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})##, I thought of the function ##f=2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})##, the term ##t## ruins me everything because it takes into account the sign. Can anyone suggest me a different approach?
 
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mahler1 said:
Homework Statement .
Let ##f:\mathbb R \to \mathbb R## be the function defined as ##f(t)=t+2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})## if ##t≠0## and ##f(0)=0##. Prove that ##f## is not bijective in any neighbourhood of ##0##. The attempt at a solution.

I've tried to prove that is not injective. The only idea I had in mind (later I realized it was completely wrong) was to suppose there is a neighbourhood of ##0## where the function is bijective. Then, there is ##\epsilon>0## such that ##B(0,\epsilon) \subset U##. I considered ##t_1=(2k\pi)^{-1}## and ##t_2=(-2k\pi)^{-1}## with ##k \in \mathbb N## such that ##k>(2\pi\epsilon)^{-1}## (I can find such ##k## by the archimidean property of the natural numbers), then ##t_1## and ##t_2## are in ##U##.I did all that without considering that ##f=t+2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})##, I thought of the function ##f=2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})##, the term ##t## ruins me everything because it takes into account the sign. Can anyone suggest me a different approach?

Your function is differentiable. If a function is bijective and continuous on an interval, then clearly it has be monotone increasing or decreasing. Can you think of a way to use the derivative to show that isn't true? You can use parts of your previous argument here.
 
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1. What is a bijective function?

A bijective function is a type of function that has a one-to-one and onto relationship between its domain and range. This means that for every input in the domain, there is a unique output in the range, and every element in the range has a corresponding element in the domain.

2. How do you prove that a function is not bijective?

To prove that a function is not bijective, you need to show that either the one-to-one or onto condition is not satisfied. This can be done by providing a counterexample for either condition. For the one-to-one condition, you can show that two different inputs in the domain produce the same output in the range. For the onto condition, you can show that there is an element in the range that does not have a corresponding element in the domain.

3. Can a function be bijective if it is not one-to-one or onto?

No, a function can only be bijective if it satisfies both the one-to-one and onto conditions. If a function is not one-to-one, it means that there are multiple inputs in the domain that produce the same output in the range, which violates the uniqueness requirement of a bijective function. Similarly, if a function is not onto, it means that there is at least one element in the range that does not have a corresponding element in the domain, which violates the surjectivity requirement of a bijective function.

4. Can a function be bijective if its domain and range are infinite?

Yes, a function can be bijective even if its domain and range are infinite. As long as the one-to-one and onto conditions are satisfied, the function is considered bijective. However, it can be more challenging to prove bijectivity for infinite sets compared to finite sets.

5. Are all invertible functions bijective?

Yes, all invertible functions are bijective. An invertible function is a function that has a unique inverse, meaning that the output of the function can be used to find the input. This property satisfies both the one-to-one and onto conditions, making the function bijective.

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