Proving a function is not bijective

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The function defined as f(t) = t + 2t^2sin(1/t) for t ≠ 0 and f(0) = 0 is proven to be non-bijective in any neighborhood of 0. The discussion highlights an attempt to demonstrate non-injectivity by considering points t_1 = (2kπ)^{-1} and t_2 = (-2kπ)^{-1} within a neighborhood, revealing that the function's behavior is influenced by the term t, which complicates the injectivity argument. A suggestion is made to utilize the derivative of the function to establish that it is not monotonic, thereby confirming the lack of bijectivity.

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Homework Statement .
Let ##f:\mathbb R \to \mathbb R## be the function defined as ##f(t)=t+2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})## if ##t≠0## and ##f(0)=0##. Prove that ##f## is not bijective in any neighbourhood of ##0##. The attempt at a solution.

I've tried to prove that is not injective. The only idea I had in mind (later I realized it was completely wrong) was to suppose there is a neighbourhood of ##0## where the function is bijective. Then, there is ##\epsilon>0## such that ##B(0,\epsilon) \subset U##. I considered ##t_1=(2k\pi)^{-1}## and ##t_2=(-2k\pi)^{-1}## with ##k \in \mathbb N## such that ##k>(2\pi\epsilon)^{-1}## (I can find such ##k## by the archimidean property of the natural numbers), then ##t_1## and ##t_2## are in ##U##.I did all that without considering that ##f=t+2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})##, I thought of the function ##f=2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})##, the term ##t## ruins me everything because it takes into account the sign. Can anyone suggest me a different approach?
 
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mahler1 said:
Homework Statement .
Let ##f:\mathbb R \to \mathbb R## be the function defined as ##f(t)=t+2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})## if ##t≠0## and ##f(0)=0##. Prove that ##f## is not bijective in any neighbourhood of ##0##. The attempt at a solution.

I've tried to prove that is not injective. The only idea I had in mind (later I realized it was completely wrong) was to suppose there is a neighbourhood of ##0## where the function is bijective. Then, there is ##\epsilon>0## such that ##B(0,\epsilon) \subset U##. I considered ##t_1=(2k\pi)^{-1}## and ##t_2=(-2k\pi)^{-1}## with ##k \in \mathbb N## such that ##k>(2\pi\epsilon)^{-1}## (I can find such ##k## by the archimidean property of the natural numbers), then ##t_1## and ##t_2## are in ##U##.I did all that without considering that ##f=t+2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})##, I thought of the function ##f=2t^2sin(\frac{1}{t})##, the term ##t## ruins me everything because it takes into account the sign. Can anyone suggest me a different approach?

Your function is differentiable. If a function is bijective and continuous on an interval, then clearly it has be monotone increasing or decreasing. Can you think of a way to use the derivative to show that isn't true? You can use parts of your previous argument here.
 
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