Proving a mapping from Hom(V,V) to Hom(V*,V*) is isomorphic

Adgorn
Messages
133
Reaction score
19

Homework Statement


Let V be of finite dimension. Show that the mapping T→Tt is an isomorphism from Hom(V,V) onto Hom(V*,V*). (Here T is any linear operator on V).

Homework Equations


N/A

The Attempt at a Solution


Let us denote the mapping T→Tt with F(T). V if of finite dimension, say dim (V)=n. Than dimension of V*=n as well, and dim(Hom(V,V))=dim(Hom(V*,V*))=n2. So in order to prove F(T) is an isomorphism I only need to prove it is linear and non-singular.

First, F(aT1+bT2) = (aT1+bT2)t = ##\phi##(aT1+bT2) = a##\phi##(T1) + b##\phi##(T2)= aT1t + bT2t = aF(T1)+bF(T2) for some a,b ∈ K and ##\phi## ∈ V*.

Thus, F is linear. Now the only thing left to proof is that Ker F={0}, and this is where I got stuck. I don't know how to prove that the function is non-singular, so I need some assistance.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Adgorn said:

Homework Statement


Let V be of finite dimension. Show that the mapping T→Tt is an isomorphism from Hom(V,V) onto Hom(V*,V*). (Here T is any linear operator on V).

Homework Equations


N/A

The Attempt at a Solution


Let us denote the mapping T→Tt with F(T). V if of finite dimension, say dim (V)=n. Than dimension of V*=n as well, and dim(Hom(V,V))=dim(Hom(V*,V*))=n2. So in order to prove F(T) is an isomorphism I only need to prove it is linear and non-singular.

First, F(aT1+bT2) = (aT1+bT2)t = ##\phi##(aT1+bT2) = a##\phi##(T1) + b##\phi##(T2)= aT1t + bT2t = aF(T1)+bF(T2) for some a,b ∈ K and ##\phi## ∈ V*.

Thus, F is linear. Now the only thing left to proof is that Ker F={0}, and this is where I got stuck. I don't know how to prove that the function is non-singular, so I need some assistance.
You have an inverse, don't you? Linearity, regularity and with comparison of dimension you have all you need, but why is ##F(\varphi) \in \operatorname{Hom}(V^*,V^*)## for ##\varphi \in \operatorname{Hom}(V,V)##? Where is the definition of a transposed mapping used?
 
Well, my book's definition of transpose mapping (which may not be the general one) is as follows:
Let T:V→U be a linear mapping from V to U, and let ##\phi## be a linear functional from U to U*. Then the transpose mapping Tt is a linear mapping from V* to U* is defined as Tt:V*→U*=##\phi \circ T##. Thus (Tt(##\phi##))(v)=##\phi##(T(v)).

Therefore if T ∈ Hom(V,V) (since it's a linear operator on V), then F(T)=Tt ∈ Hom(V*,V*) (since it's a linear operator on V*).

Also I'm afraid I am not advanced enough in my knowledge of the field to know what solution to deduce from what you said about linearity, regularity, and comparison of dimension. So more specification is required for me.
 
Adgorn said:
Also I'm afraid I am not advanced enough in my knowledge of the field to know what solution to deduce from what you said about linearity, regularity, and comparison of dimension. So more specification is required for me.
You have shown that transposing ##F## is linear. You also have compared dimensions, which are equal for ##\operatorname{Hom}(V,V)## and ##\operatorname{Hom}(V^*,V^*)##. Regular here is only another word for bijective. And as you already said, due to the dimensions, even injectivity is sufficient. Thus you asked about the kernel of transposing, but as ##F^2(T)=T## and thus ##F^2=1##, it has to be zero. Or you can assume ##F(T)=0##. Then ##0=F(T)(\phi(V))=\phi(T(V))## with the isomorphism ##\phi : V \rightarrow V^*##. Now what does that mean for first ##T(V)## and then for ##T##?
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
Back
Top