Proving det(xy) = det(x) det(y) for R Matrices Over Zp

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Homework Statement


Let R be the ring of all 2*2 matrices over Zp , a prime. Show that for x, y contained in R, det(xy) = det(x) det(y).


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The Attempt at a Solution


The det(xy)≠0, therefore the equality can be true. However, I am not sure how to prove that the equality is true without using a value, say det(xy)=1?
 
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Since the matrices are only 2×2, it's not too much work to just let x and y be two arbitrary matrices and then explicitly compute xy, det x, det y and finally (det x)(det y) and det xy.
 
Fredrik said:
Since the matrices are only 2×2, it's not too much work to just let x and y be two arbitrary matrices and then explicitly compute xy, det x, det y and finally (det x)(det y) and det xy.

So if X = (a b c d)
and Y = (e f g h)
XY = (ae + bg af + bh ce + dg cf + dh)

I may say that
Det(X) = ad - bc
Det(Y) = eh - fg
Det(XY) = [(ae + bg)(cf + dh)] - [(af + bh)(ce + dg)]
(aecf + bgcf + aedh + bgdh) - (afce + bhce + afdg + bhdg)
bgcf + aedh - bhce - afdg
(ad - bc)(eh) - (ad - bc)(fg)

Det(X)Det(Y)= (ad)(eh) - (bc)(eh) - (ad)(fg) + (bc)(fg)
(ad- bc)(eh) - (ad - bc)(fg)

Is the above reasoning correct? I thought it should be more complicated since it involves R being the ring of all 2*2 matrices over Zp, a prime, and I haven't considered that in my argument...
 
Last edited:
Hi!
Everything seems all right. In particular, your proof is applicable in the ring R since R\in\mathbb{M}_{2\times 2}. Binet-Cauchy formula states that for any square matrix A,B of the same order, det(AB)=det(A) det(B) = det(BA) Hence, that property of determinants has nothing to do with the primality of the entries of the matrices.
 
Last edited:
Justabeginner said:
So if X = (a b c d)
and Y = (e f g h)
XY = (ae + bg af + bh ce + dg cf + dh)

I may say that
Det(X) = ad - bc
Det(Y) = eh - fg
Det(XY) = [(ae + bg)(cf + dh)] - [(af + bh)(ce + dg)]
(aecf + bgcf + aedh + bgdh) - (afce + bhce + afdg + bhdg)
bgcf + aedh - bhce - afdg
(ad - bc)(eh) - (ad - bc)(fg)

Det(X)Det(Y)= (ad)(eh) - (bc)(eh) - (ad)(fg) + (bc)(fg)
(ad- bc)(eh) - (ad - bc)(fg)

Is the above reasoning correct? I thought it should be more complicated since it involves R being the ring of all 2*2 matrices over Zp, a prime, and I haven't considered that in my argument...
You could state that the multiplications and additions are done in Zp and the various operations work the same in Zp as in R.
 
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HallsofIvy said:
You could state that the multiplications and additions are done in Zp and the various operations work the same in Zp as in R.

I can say this since Zp is in R? I'm confused as to the exact relationship between the two.
 
You can say that because R\in\mathbb{M}_{2\times 2}!
 
patbuzz said:
You can say that because R\in\mathbb{M}_{2\times 2}!

So the ring is an element of the 2*2 matrices?
 
Right on! So your proof applies to it as well.
 
  • #10
patbuzz said:
Right on! So your proof applies to it as well.

Ah, that makes sense now! Thank you.
 
  • #11
patbuzz said:
R\in\mathbb{M}_{2\times 2}.
Don't you mean ##\subseteq## rather than ##\in##?
 
  • #12
Oh well, you're right. Sorry!
 

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