chaoseverlasting said:
But the question says, it has only a one sided derivative. One of the derivatives does not exist.
That's not what the question says at all. Let's be clear. If f is a function, and x is some point in the domain, let L denote the left derivative of f at x, R the right derivative of f at x, and D the derivative of f at x. It's possible that some of these numbers don't exist, so I might right R = d.n.e. for example. Now if I write R = a, L = b, then understand that by using different symbols a and b, I mean a and b to be different, but I mean both of them to be real numbers, otherwise I'd write d.n.e. So we have the following possibilities:
I) L = d.n.e., R = d.n.e., D = d.n.e.
II) L = a, R = d.n.e., D = d.n.e.
III) L = d.n.e., R = b, D = d.n.e.
IV) L = c, R = d, D = d.n.e.
V) L = e, R = e, D = e
The questions asks to prove the existence of a one-sided derivative at 0, so it's asking you to prove that we're not in case I (i.e. we're in case II, III, IV, or V). It's not asking you to prove that it has only one one-sided derivative, i.e. it's not asking you to prove that you're either in case II or III. In this problem, you are in either case IV or case V. You're in case V iff anyone of L, R, or D is 0.
So when it asks: "Show that f has
a finite one-sided derivative at 0" it means "Show that f has
at leaste one finite one-sided derivative at 0", not "Show that f has
only one finite one-sided derivative at 0." If I say "Show that 32 has an even divisor" I'm certainly not asking you to show that it has only one even divisor, I'm asking you to show there exists an even divisor, i.e. that there is at least one even divisor.